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Pharmaceutical Industry Quiz: Comprehensive Questions and Answers, Exams of Nursing

Cranfield UniversityNursing

A comprehensive quiz covering various aspects of the pharmaceutical industry, including drug development, marketing, regulation, and administration. It provides multiple-choice questions with answers, covering topics such as drug discovery, clinical trials, drug interactions, and the role of pharmaceutical sales representatives. The quiz is designed to test knowledge and understanding of key concepts in the pharmaceutical industry.

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 12/22/2024

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CNPR All Quizzes Combined Graded A 2023
1. T/F: Pharmaceuticals are arguably the most socially important healthcare
product.
- True Pg 1
2. T/F: Pharmaceutical development is a high-risk undertaking, in which many
promising leads prove disappointing.
- True Pg 2
3. Pharmaceutical sales are highest in which geographical regions?
- The U.S., Western Europe, and Japan (Pg3)
4. The U.S. accounts for about ____ of the world's pharmaceutical revenues.
- B. 50% (pg3)
5. What has fueled recent growth in the pharmaceutical industry?
- population growth and increased life expectancies (pg4)
6. According to your manual, which statement accurately describes the predicted
relationship between pharmaceutical companies and genomic research facilities?
- partnerships between pharmaceutical companies and genomic companies will
not prove immediately profitable. (pg4)
7. T/F: Prescription drug therapy is not cost-effective for insurance companies and
healthcare providers.
- False (pg4)
8. T/F: The high price of healthcare is explained by the high price of medicines.
- False (pg5)
9. T/F: One of the oldest and least effective pharmaceutical marketing techniques is
DTC (direct-to-consumer) advertising.
- False (pg5)
10. What influences the number of districts in a region?
- the region's population
11. What is an example of the regionalization of healthcare delivery systems?
- California and Florida have different prescription reimbursement policies.
12. T/F: The heart of a pharmaceutical sales team is the Regional Manager.
- False
13. T/F: Most DMs did not start as representatives.
- False (pg7)
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Partial preview of the text

Download Pharmaceutical Industry Quiz: Comprehensive Questions and Answers and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

CNPR All Quizzes Combined Graded A 2023

  1. T/F: Pharmaceuticals are arguably the most socially important healthcare product.
    • True Pg 1
  2. T/F: Pharmaceutical development is a high-risk undertaking, in which many promising leads prove disappointing.
    • True Pg 2
  3. Pharmaceutical sales are highest in which geographical regions?
    • The U.S., Western Europe, and Japan (Pg3)
  4. The U.S. accounts for about ____ of the world's pharmaceutical revenues.
    • B. 50% (pg3)
  5. What has fueled recent growth in the pharmaceutical industry?
    • population growth and increased life expectancies (pg4)
  6. According to your manual, which statement accurately describes the predicted relationship between pharmaceutical companies and genomic research facilities?
    • partnerships between pharmaceutical companies and genomic companies will not prove immediately profitable. (pg4)
  7. T/F: Prescription drug therapy is not cost-effective for insurance companies and healthcare providers.
    • False (pg4)
  8. T/F: The high price of healthcare is explained by the high price of medicines.
    • False (pg5)
  9. T/F: One of the oldest and least effective pharmaceutical marketing techniques is DTC (direct-to-consumer) advertising.
    • False (pg5)
  10. What influences the number of districts in a region?
    • the region's population
  11. What is an example of the regionalization of healthcare delivery systems?
    • California and Florida have different prescription reimbursement policies.
  12. T/F: The heart of a pharmaceutical sales team is the Regional Manager.
    • False
  13. T/F: Most DMs did not start as representatives.
    • False (pg7)
  1. How many territories are in a typical district?
    • B. 8 to 12 (pg6)
  2. What is the most effective method for grabbing market share?
    • A. comparative selling (pg10)
  3. T/F: Pharmaceutical reps mainly visit pharmacies.
    • False (pg11)
  4. T/F:It usually only takes 1-2 calls to a physician before he or she commits to prescribing your product.
    • False (pg12)
  5. T/F: The pharmacist may dispense a product other than what the physician prescribed
    • True (pg12)
  6. Who classifies as payers?
    • Employers
  7. What defines ethical pharmaceutical companies?
    • researching and developing novel drugs
  8. T/F: One of the most disappointing results of the pharmaceutical industry's continued investment in R & D is the few new drugs being approved and in development.
    • False (pg15)
  9. How long are people newly diagnosed with HIV expected to live?
    • another 50 years (pg16)
  10. How much has the average American lifespan increased since 1890?
    • almost 10 years (pg17)
  11. What is a treatment group?
    • a group of patients assigned to receive a specified treatment (pg18)
  12. What is the main difference between a blinded and double-blinded study?
    • In a double-blind study, neither the study staff nor the study participants know which subjects are in the experimental group and which in the control. (pg18)
  13. What does asymptomatic mean?
    • not exhibiting signs or symptoms (pg18)
  14. Which term denotes the study of bodily functions (as opposed to structures)?
  1. T/F: The normal age-related decrease in kidney function can help doctors determine an appropriate dosage based solely on a person's age.
    • True (pg35)
  2. What DIFFERENTIATES a caplet from a tablet?
    • Caplets are shaped like capsules and have film coatings to aid in swallowing. (pg36)
  3. Where will you find the legend "Caution: Federal Law prohibits dispensing without a prescription"?
    • on the label of all prescription drugs (pg39)
  4. What happens in slow acetylators?
    • Drugs that are metabolized by N-acetyl transferase tend to reach higher blood levels and remain in the body longer.
  5. About _____ of the people in the U.S. are slow acetylators.
    • 50%
  6. Which of the following statements about drug-drug interactions is INCORRECT?
    • Drug-drug interactions are always harmful
  7. T/F: Smoking decreases the effectiveness of some drugs.
    • True
  8. Which of the following statements about dietary supplements is INCORRECT?
    • Because dietary supplements are not drugs, interactions with drugs are not a concern.
  9. Which statement/s is/are INCORRECT about an ideal drug, or magic bullet as Ehrlich phrased it? - all are correct: A. It does not exist. B. It would be aimed precisely at a disease site. C. It would not harm healthy tissues.
  10. Which statement accurately differentiates resistance from tolerance?
    • Tolerance refers to a person's diminished response to a drug after repeated use, while resistance applies to microorganisms' or cancel cells' abilities to withstand drug effects.
  11. T/F: Between 3% and 7% of hospital admissions in the United States are estimated to be for treatment of adverse drug reactions.
    • true
  1. Which statement is true about the universal scale for quantifying the severity of an adverse drug reaction? - None of these statements are true because there is no such scale A. The severities of adverse drug reactions are quantified by their chronicity. B. The severities of adverse drug reactions are quantified by their threat to life.
  2. Why is noncompliance a serious public health concern? - It increases the cost of medical care.
  3. Which of the following is NOT eligible for patent protection under U.S. regulations? - Companies can be granted patents for all of these things
  4. T/F: Drugs' trade names are often unrelated to their intended use.
    • False
  5. T/F: Like foods and household products, generic drugs are usually lower quality than the brand name drugs for which they are marketed as equivalents.
    • False
  6. Legally, bioequivalence of different versions of a drug can vary by up to ________.
    • 20%
  7. Which of the following statements about biologics is INCORRECT?
    • They do not cause immune responses.
  8. T/F: "Large molecule" products are developed and manufactured by a chemical process.
    • False
  9. What are drugs that attract or bind to cell receptors in order to mimic or enhance activities by endogenous chemical messengers?
    • agonists
  10. Which term denotes how an API works in the body?
    • mechanism of action
  11. What cements the active and inert components together to maintain cohesive portions?
    • binders
  12. What does the medical abbreviation BID denote?
    • twice a day
  13. What is the medical abbreviation for as needed? - PRN
  1. What type of sale bypasses the need for intermediary distributors? - manufacturer-direct sales
  2. What is a group purchasing organization (GPO)? - an entity consisting of two or more hospitals or other health care entities that negotiates contracts on behalf of its members
  3. Prescriptions dispensed by mail-order pharmacies are, on average, around ____________ than those dispensed by retail pharmacies. - 3 times larger
  4. What are examples of non-stock sales? –
    • brokerage sales
    • dock-to-dock sales
    • drop shipments
  5. What is another term for rebates? - sell-side arrangements
  6. T/F: The PDMA is the Prescription Drug Manufacturers Association. - False
  7. A company that owns and operates three or fewer pharmacies is an ____________. - independent drug store
  8. Which section of a drug's package insert information covers the usual dosage range? - indications and usage
  9. T/F: Drug labels must include indications, usage information, and contraindications. - True
  10. What should be included in the description section of a drug's package insert information? - the drug's proprietary name and the established name
  11. Exclusivity gives exclusive _____, is granted by the FDA, and can run concurrently with a patent or not. - marketing rights
  12. What differentiates exclusivity from a patent? - Exclusivity is only granted upon the drug's FDA approval.
  13. What is required of an invention for it to be worthy of patent protection? - It must be novel, useful, and not obvious.
  14. This is NOT required by the FDA's Criteria for Equivalency. - The drugs are adequately labeled.
  15. A generic drug is ______ to the originator brand-name drug in dosage, strength, safety, and quality. - bioequivalent
  1. What list is generally considered the most reliable source of information on therapeutically equivalent drug products? - The Blue Book
  2. Which of the following is an Orange Book rating? - B
  3. What is the term for chemical equivalents which, when administered in the same amounts, will provide the same biological or physiological availability as measured by blood and urine levels? - biological equivalents
  4. What term denotes a drug that is identical or bioequivalent to the originator brand-name drug in dosage form, safety, strength, route, quality, performance, characteristics, and intended use? - OTC
  5. What term denotes the dispensing of an unbranded generic product for the product prescribed? - chemical substitution
  6. What is the duration of a patent challenge? - 180 Days
  7. How is a drug sample closet or cabinet like a grocery store shelf? - The more visibility you can give your drug, the more likely that it will be prescribed.
  8. T/F: Pharmaceutical representatives do not typically store and secure their own drug samples. - False
  9. T/F: Sampling is sometimes the most important factor in a pharmaceutical rep's success. - True
  10. T/F: The FDA approves storage conditions for drug products. - True
  11. T/F: Pharmaceutical representatives must always record the amount of drug samples left and obtain a signature for that amount. - True
  12. What is prohibited by Section 503 of the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act, as amended by the Prescription Drug Marketing Act? - the sale, purchase, or trade or offer to sell, purchase, or trade prescription drug samples
  13. T/F: The federal government does not regulate the drug sampling for a pharmaceutical representative. - False
  14. What is not permitted by Section 503 of the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act? –
- hospitals donating their prescription drug coupons to qualified charitable organizations - hospitals donating their prescription drug samples to qualified charitable organizations

C. the increasing number of procedures in Phase III trials

  1. T/F: The landmark FDA Modernization Act of 1997 was a major step forward in enabling safe and effective new drugs and biologics to be made available sooner to patients. - True
  2. What type of system is the best way to deliver healthcare? - a market- based system
  3. How would increased pharmaceutical price controls affect the U.S. healthcare system? - Increased price controls would stifle innovation.
  4. Which of the following invests a greater percentage of sales in research than the biotech sector? - none of these: A. the aerospace sector B. the communications sector C. the electronics sector
  5. What was the intent of the Bayh-Dole Act and the Stevenson-Wydler Technology Innovation Act? - to hasten the commercialization of technologies that otherwise might not be used
  6. What did the G10 Medicines Group recently report about the pharmaceutical industry in the European Union (EU)? - There is poor collaboration between publicly- and privately-funded research centers.
  7. T/F: The aim of preclinical pharmacological studies is to obtain data on the safety and effectiveness of the lead compound. - True
  8. T/F: Toxicity information in preclinical studies helps provide confidence about a drug's safety. - True
  9. T/F: Pharmacological studies using animals are regulated under Good Laboratory Practice. - true
  10. Why do drugs administered to patients only contain APIs? - They don't.
  11. What does NOT affect a drug's ability to permeate membranes? - the drug's vesicles
  12. Through which barriers can lipid-soluble drugs usually pass? - cell membranes
  13. How are weak acid drugs generally absorbed by the stomach? - more quickly than weak basic drugs
  1. What route of administration does NOT completely bypass the liver? - rectal administration
  2. Why are intravenous drug dosages easier to control than drugs administered transdermally? - The entire dose is available in the bloodstream to be distributed to the target site.
  3. Which of the following does NOT affect a drug's distribution to its target tissues? - All of these factors affect a drug's distribution to its target tissues.
  4. Which of these medical terms means "to apply the drug on the skin surface"? - transdermal
  5. T/F: Carcinogenicity studies are carried out to identify the tumor-causing potential of a drug. - True
  6. According to NIH ethical guidelines, which of the following is the most important criteria in selecting subjects for clinical studies? - scientific objectives
  7. Which statement about the IRB is INCORRECT? - The members of the IRB/IEC must be experts in the topic of the study
  8. Which phases of clinical studies are open label and which are blinded? - Phase I and IV trials are often open label, but Phase II and III are double-blinded or at least blinded.
  9. If it is not possible to measure the direct effects of a drug, what is used instead? - surrogate markers such as blood pressure and cholesterol levels
  10. Which of the following is an observational study that first identifies a group of subjects with a certain disease and a control group without the disease, and then looks to back in time (e.g., via chart reviews) to find exposure to risk factors? - case-control study
  11. Which measure of central tendency is the sum of all observations divided by the number of observations? - mean
  12. Which measurement describes the number of new events that occur during a specified period of time in a population at risk for the event (e.g., lung infections per year)? - incidence
  13. Which of the following measures is used to describe the variability of the population mean? - standard error of the mean
  1. Which statement about stem cells is CORRECT? - Pluripotent stem cells can develop into many cell types, but not a new individual.
  2. T/F: Leukemia is a condition in which the stem cells in the bone marrow malfunction and produce an excessive number of immature white blood cells - True
  3. Which of the following are types of vectors used in gene therapy? - retroviruses
  4. What is NOT a type of stem cell? - semipotent
  5. Traditional vaccines are prepared in a number of ways. What way is NOT one of them? - insulin
  6. T/F: Effective drug therapy is a cost-effective and highly valuable means of controlling total healthcare expenditures and improving quality of life. - True
  7. Drug utilization review (DUR) programs... - have traditionally been used to ensure the appropriate, safe, and effective use of prescription drugs, but are increasingly shifting their focus to minimizing costs.
  8. T/F: DUR programs involve retrospective monitoring of physicians' prescribing patterns. - true
  9. T/F: A formulary is a list of prescription drugs approved by insurance coverage. - True
  10. The history of drug formularies in the U.S. extends back to... - ...the American Revolution.
  11. Which of these is NOT a type of formulary? - All of these are types of formularies: A. a closed three-tier formulary in which generic drugs are listed on Tier 1 B. a five-tier formulary that is supplemented by a step therapy program C. an open formulary that places few restrictions on coverage or access
  12. Which of the following is NOT a recent formulary trend? - the repeal of Hatch-Waxman
  13. What did the Hatch-Waxman Act do? - make it easier for generic manufacturers to compete with R&D companies
  14. What is opportunity cost? - the value of a sacrificed alternative
  1. According to your manual, the three primary entities that fund pharmaceuticals are employers, the government (Medicare and Medicaid), and ______. - individuals
  2. Which of these individuals would NOT be a member of a P&T committee?
- a company's medical liaison
  1. T/F: Almost 98% of employed Americans are now covered by a HMO, a preferred provider organization, or a point-of-service plan. - FALSE
  2. T/F: Pharmaceutical companies are more interested in acquiring and exploiting another's brands than in acquiring another's R&D and sales and marketing assets. - False
  3. Ideally, when should brand strategy development for a new drug begin? - during Phase II clinical trials
  4. Which of the following is an example of a expressive value? - I own a BMW because I want people to know that I'm a serious driving enthusiast.
  5. According to your manual, which of the following is NOT an example of a functional value? - uniqueness
  6. T/F: It is rare for pharmaceutical companies to explore, develop, and promote expressive values with which patients might identify. - True
  7. T/F: To be competitive, pharmaceutical brands must be distinctive. They must possess defining characteristics that are perceived by customers to be unique, attractive, and relevant to their needs. - True
  8. T/F: With the global need for new drugs, pharmaceutical brand names are not subject to regulatory approval. - True
  9. How has DTC advertising changed over the last few decades? - DTC advertising has become an essential marketing tactic for both large and small brands.
  10. Which of the following MOST strongly influences physicians' prescribing habits? - doctors' personal experiences, and their patients' unique situations
  11. T/F: Pharmaceutical companies spend more on promotional activities than on R&D. - False
  12. Which of the following would be MOST well-served by mass-market print and TV ads? - a brand that treats a very common chronic condition
  1. According to your manual, family physicians diagnose and treat approximately what proportion of patients they see (as opposed to referring them to specialists)? - 95%
  2. Which of the following is NOT one of the steps on the Product Adoption Continuum? - These are all steps on the continuum. A. adoption B. awareness C. evaluation
  3. Which of the following would be classified as a type of somatic psychiatric treatment? - A. drug therapy
  4. Why is the last 10 minutes of each hour usually the best time to make office visits to psychiatrists? - Psychiatrist often see patients on the hour for 45 minutes.
  5. What is/are an advantage/s of selling to residents? - Residents are often more open-minded.
  6. What is drug utilization review (DUR)? - an MCO's practice of monitoring prescribing patterns
  7. Used in the treatment of manic-depressive illness and schizoaffective disorder: - Mood stabilizers
  8. What is the focus of the short call protocol? - beginning with a specific patient type
  9. Who is the Medical Science Liaison (MSL)? - someone employed by a pharmaceutical company who builds relationships with thought leaders and acts as an informational resources
  10. What type of education do MSLs typically have? - graduate-level science degrees
  11. How do companies typically judge the MSL team's contributions? - return on education
  12. What differentiates push through programs from pull through programs? - Sales representatives are more involved in pull through programs.
  13. Which of these is NOT a type of pull through program? - All of these are types of pull through programs. A. adherence/persistency

B. educational support C. therapeutic intervention

  1. T/F: Because pharmaceutical sales reps work mostly out of their homes, it is not important that they work well in a team environment. - Fasle
  2. What is the MOST LIKELY reason that a doctor would lack interest in one of your clinical studies? - The doctor does not like the way you are presenting it.
  3. Which of the following is NOT an effective method for reaching the 65+ market? - All of these are effective methods for reaching the 65+ market. A. being a Medicare Part D information resource B. knowing the physician-payer mix C. taking advantage of partnership programs
  4. T/F: When a physician visits your hospital display, you should begin conversation by asking, "Can I help you?"? - False
  5. Which of the following is NOT a rule in making the most out of your Which of the following is NOT a rule in making the most out of your sales calls? - your agenda, not theirs
  6. T/F: Specialty care products are more often prescribed by generalist Specialty care products are more often prescribed by generalist physicians. - False
  7. T/F: Side effects that might be considered merely minor annoyances in acute treatment can be a powerful barrier to adoption in chronic therapies. - True
  8. T/F: Acute medications, such as antibiotics, are used to address short- term illnesses or symptoms. - True
  9. T/F: In some medical cases, a therapy may be initiated by a specialist and monitored and maintained by a primary care physician. - True
  10. T/F: Blockbuster drug status typically translates into sales of just under $10 million annually. - False
  11. T/F: A generic drug manufacturer's greatest challenge is often to replicate drug formulation factors that affect the pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic characteristics of the original drug. - True
  12. What differentiates an orphan drug from a blockbuster drug? - Orphan drugs typically treat rare conditions.
  1. When referring to medication dosage, which medical abbreviation denotes "hour"? - H
  2. Which of the following terms denotes the study of drugs' beneficial and toxic effects on living cells, tissues, and organisms? - pharmacology
  3. What are specialized cells and tissues that work together to perform a specific body function for a common purpose? - organs
  4. What is the mechanism of action? - the method by which a medication produces its therapeutic effects
  5. What is plasma? - The fluid portion of the blood
  6. What is anaphylaxis? - An extreme sensitivity and reaction to a foreign substance, including medications
  7. Which of the following is NOT a way in which CNS agents are used? - They are used in all these ways. A. as analgesics B. as anesthetics C. as anti-convulsants
  8. How do cholinergic agonists work? - by mimicking the actions of acetylcholine
  9. Which of the following is considered a sympathomimetic drug that stimulates the alpha-adrenergic receptors? - Decongestant
  10. Which of the following is NOT a type of gastrointestinal agents? - prolactin inhibitors
  11. What is one of the main functions of a tocolytic agent? - to suppress labor
  12. Which of these conditions is NOT treated with antiandrogens? - dyspepsia
  13. which types of patients are MOST likely to receive immune globulins? - patients with weakened immune systems
  14. What is iron's primary function in the body? - carrying oxygen
  15. Which of the following is NOT a type of anti-infectant? - antimetabolites
  1. What is one difference between entry-level and experienced résumés? - A. Entry-level résumés are more likely to begin with the education section than the experience section.
  2. Which statement about targeted cover letters is true? - Targeted cover letters are always tailored to specific companies.