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Biology 1002B Make-up Midterm: Cellular Processes & Metabolism, Exams of Biology

University of Western OntarioBiology

A series of multiple-choice questions covering key concepts in cellular biology and metabolism, focusing on topics such as protein structure and function, gene expression, photosynthesis, and enzyme kinetics. The questions are designed to assess understanding of fundamental biological principles and their application to various cellular processes.

Typology: Exams

2023/2024

Uploaded on 03/18/2025

kaabisha
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March 2023 Biology 1002B Make-up Midterm Page 1 of 16
Code 111
Multiple Choice:
(There are
42 questions
)
Circle the best single letter choice for each of the following questions before transferring your
answers to your Scantron sheet. Note, for “multiple-multiple” style questions, more than one option
may be correct (e.g. 1, 2 & 3 only). Part marks may be available for choosing some of the correct
answers but choosing any incorrect answer earns a grade of “0” for that question.
1. Let’s compare the proteome of Chlamydomonas with those of humans and the aerobic bacterium
E. coli.
Which of the following is a protein that you find in the proteome of all three organisms?
A. GAS, encodes a G-protein-coupled receptor.
B. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate exporter protein.
C. AC3, Acetate import protein.
D. Citrate synthase, an enzyme of the Citric Acid Cycle.
2. There is a protein called Green Fluorescent Protein (GFP) that absorbs light without the need of a
pigment cofactor.
How do you think it does that?
A. Technically it doesn’t absorb light it only fluoresces light.
B. It has an amino acid sequence that changes shape in the presence of light.
C. Unlike other proteins, GFP has peptide bonds with only two electrons.
D. Specific amino acids form a series of alternating single and double carbon-carbon bonds.
3. Similar to the firing of a neuron in the brain, channelrhodopsin triggers an action potential.
What specifically causes an action potential?
A. An action potential is triggered when a voltage difference is established across the plasma
membrane.
B. An action potential is triggered when positively charged ions move into the cell.
C. An action potential is triggered when light is absorbed by a pigment molecule.
D. An action potential is triggered when a G-protein binds to a receptor molecule.
4. Gene expression is a highly regulated process.
Which of the following statements about gene expression is correct?
A. All functional genes are transcribed into mRNA.
B. Transfer RNA (tRNA) is encoded by genes; it gets transcribed but not translated.
C. The rate of transcription can be altered by factors that are functional in the cytosol.
D. The promoter plays a key role in regulating the stability of a gene transcript.
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Multiple Choice: (There are 42 questions ) Circle the best single letter choice for each of the following questions before transferring your answers to your Scantron sheet. Note, for “multiple-multiple” style questions, more than one option may be correct (e.g. 1, 2 & 3 only). Part marks may be available for choosing some of the correct answers but choosing any incorrect answer earns a grade of “0” for that question.

  1. Let’s compare the proteome of Chlamydomonas with those of humans and the aerobic bacterium E. coli. Which of the following is a protein that you find in the proteome of all three organisms? A. GAS, encodes a G-protein-coupled receptor. B. Glyceraldehyde- 3 - phosphate exporter protein. C. AC3, Acetate import protein. D. Citrate synthase, an enzyme of the Citric Acid Cycle.
  2. There is a protein called Green Fluorescent Protein (GFP) that absorbs light without the need of a pigment cofactor. How do you think it does that? A. Technically it doesn’t absorb light it only fluoresces light. B. It has an amino acid sequence that changes shape in the presence of light. C. Unlike other proteins, GFP has peptide bonds with only two electrons. D. Specific amino acids form a series of alternating single and double carbon-carbon bonds.
  3. Similar to the firing of a neuron in the brain, channelrhodopsin triggers an action potential. What specifically causes an action potential? A. An action potential is triggered when a voltage difference is established across the plasma membrane. B. An action potential is triggered when positively charged ions move into the cell. C. An action potential is triggered when light is absorbed by a pigment molecule. D. An action potential is triggered when a G-protein binds to a receptor molecule.
  4. Gene expression is a highly regulated process. Which of the following statements about gene expression is correct? A. All functional genes are transcribed into mRNA. B. Transfer RNA (tRNA) is encoded by genes; it gets transcribed but not translated. C. The rate of transcription can be altered by factors that are functional in the cytosol. D. The promoter plays a key role in regulating the stability of a gene transcript.

  1. Let’s look at a Chlamydomonas growth curve. Which of the following statements correctly compares different phases: Lag Phase, Exponential Phase, Stationary Phase?

  2. The rate of cell division is greater in Lag Phase than in Exponential Phase.

  3. It’s possible that in Stationary Phase the growth media still contains nitrogen (NH 4 +).

  4. There are more cells in the culture in Exponential Phase compared to Stationary Phase.

  5. Analysis of the transcriptome would shows changes in gene expression between the different phases. A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1 and 3 C. 2 and 4 D. 4 only E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

  6. Recall our discussion of Type 1 and Type 2 opsins and the concept of protein homology. On what basis do we conclude that two proteins are in fact evolutionarily related (i.e. homologous)? A. Two proteins that are homologous will fold into the same shape. B. Two proteins that are homologous will have the same function. C. Two proteins that are homologous will be in the same species. D. Two proteins that are homologous will have similar amino acid sequences.

  7. Recall the “regulation of gene expression” slide from Class 3. What is the likely consequence of an increase in mRNA stability? A. Increase in the rate of transcription. B. Decrease in tRNA – ribosome interaction. C. Enhanced RNA polymerase activity. D. Higher levels of corresponding protein.

  8. Hydroxylase is a protein complex that requires vitamin C as a cofactor. This complex is critical to the function of our cells, and yet to make it we need to get something from our diet. What is it that our cells are missing? A. Humans lack a specific biosynthetic pathway. B. Humans lack the vitamin C gene. C. Humans lack the gene to make the hydroxylase apoprotein. D. Humans lack the chaperone needed for the protein to attain the native conformation.

  1. Energy enters the biosphere as photons of light and is transformed into various chemical forms; this supports the growth of both autotrophic and heterotrophic metabolism. Which of the following statements about heterotrophy and autotrophy is correct?

  2. Matter, in the form of carbon, enters autotrophs as a gas; it enters heterotrophs as a solid.

  3. In autotrophs the carbon enters cells in an oxidized form; in heterotrophs it is more reduced.

  4. In autotrophs matter and energy enter a cell as two distinct things; in heterotrophs matter and energy exist in the same molecule.

  5. It is possible for one cell to undergo autotrophy and heterotrophy at the same time. A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1 and 3 C. 2 and 4 D. 4 only E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

  6. Enzymes are the primary catalysts found in all cells. Which of the following statements about enzymes is correct?

  7. Enzymes speed up the rate of a reaction by increasing the number of molecules that get to the transition state.

  8. Because enzymes need Activation Energy (Ea), the products of the reaction will always have at least a little more free energy than the reactants.

  9. Because the catalytic cycle slows down as temperature drops, organisms often increase enzyme levels to compensate.

  10. The lack of change in enzyme activity in the presence of urea indicates that most enzymes are functional as long as they maintain their primary structure. A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1 and 3 C. 2 and 4 D. 4 only E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

  11. A key enzyme of the citric acid cycle is isocitrate dehydrogenase. Given your understanding of the citric acid cycle, which of the following molecules, when present at high concentrations, acts as an allosteric inhibitor of isocitrate dehydrogenase activity? A. NADH B. Pyruvate C. ADP D. Glucose

  1. The notation below shows a common chemical reaction. The nomenclature (𝑙) refers to a liquid and (𝑔) to a gas. 2 𝐶𝐻 3 𝑂𝐻(𝑙) + 3 𝑂 2 (𝑔) → 2 𝐶𝑂 2 (𝑔) + 4 𝐻 2 𝑂(𝑔) Which of the following statements about this reaction is correct?

  2. The reaction is exergonic.

  3. There is more usable energy in 𝐶𝐻 3 𝑂𝐻 than in 𝐶𝑂 2.

  4. The reaction results in an increase in entropy.

  5. The reaction is endothermic. A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1 and 3 C. 2 and 4 D. 4 only E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

  6. The figure on the right shows the activity of the enzyme hexokinase. The enzyme was isolated from three different species of bacteria; each is adapted to a different temperature environment. Which of the following interpretations of the data is correct?

  7. It is easier to denature the enzyme isolated from species A compared to species C.

  8. The three distinct temperature profiles can be explained by each enzyme having a different amino acid sequence.

  9. At their optimum temperatures for activity, the growth rate of species B is probably greater than species A.

  10. Enzyme activity for species A falls to zero at 20°C because the enzyme becomes too inflexible (rigid). A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1 and 3 C. 2 and 4 D. 4 only E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

  1. CA1P is a strong inhibitor of photosynthesis; it prevents the Calvin Cycle enzyme Rubisco from binding 𝐶𝑂 2. Which of the following would be a metabolic consequence of treating a light-grown culture of Chlamydomonas with CA1P? A. Increase in G3P levels in the stroma. B. Increase in the rate of photosynthetic electron transport. C. Decrease in the amount of ATP relative to ADP. D. Decrease in the amount of NADP+^ relative to NADPH.

  2. A bodybuilder named Nadith McBuff arrives at the emergency room barely alive. His work-out partner Safae tells the physician that Nadith had recently taken the supplement “RippedFreak” After some tests, the physician suspects that RippedFreak contains a chemical uncoupler. Which of the following clinical findings is consistent with the idea that Nadith consumed an uncoupler?

  3. Nadith had an unusually fast rate of breathing.

  4. The levels of ATP in Nadith’s blood were unusually high relative to ADP.

  5. Nadith had an unusually high body temperature.

  6. Nadith’s blood glucose levels were high. A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1 and 3 C. 2 and 4 D. 4 only E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

  7. FADH 2 is similar to NADH in that it is oxidized by the respiratory electron transport chain. However oxidation of FADH 2 does not yield as much ATP as the oxidation of NADH. Why doesn't it generate as much ATP? A. Oxidation of FADH 2 to FAD releases fewer electrons than the oxidation of NADH. B. Because FADH 2 has fewer C-H bonds than NADH2, it contains less chemical energy. C. FADH 2 oxidation occurs at complex II; it bypasses the proton-pumping of Complex I. D. FADH 2 makes ATP through substrate phosphorylation and that yields less ATP than oxidative phosphorylation.

  1. High light can damage the photosynthetic apparatus. This graph shows the abundance of the D1 protein in cultures of Chlamydomonas exposed to either moderate light or high light (10X moderate) for 120 minutes. Given our discussion in class, how can we explain the data presented here?

  2. Under high light the rate of damage to PSII exceeds the rate of repair.

  3. Under moderate light photosystem II doesn’t become damaged.

  4. We can expect that the rate of carbon fixation by the Calvin Cycle will be lower under high light than moderate light.

  5. The amount of P680+^ under both light regimes would be the same. A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1 and 3 C. 2 and 4 D. 4 only E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

  6. Isolated mitochondria were incubated in a buffer containing NADH. Which one the following would NOT cause the rate of oxygen consumption to change? A. Adding ADP and Pi. B. Adding Uncoupler. C. Adding glucose. D. Raising the temperature by 10°C.

  7. Cancer cells are known to have a very high rate of growth and possess the ability to remodel cellular respiration. Which of the following statements correctly describes how cancer cells change normal respiratory metabolism?

  8. Cancer cells upregulate the expression of the glucose transporter.

  9. Cancer cells upregulate acetyl-CoA formation in mitochondria.

  10. Cancer cells increase the rate of pyruvate generation in the cytosol.

  11. Cancer cells keep the activity of pyruvate dehydrogenase complex high. A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1 and 3 C. 2 and 4 D. 4 only E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

The image here shows a light-response curve for CO 2 fixation in a banana plant; both mitochondria and chloroplasts are functional. Use this figure to answer the next 2 questions (Q 30 & Q 31 ).

  1. Which of the following interpretations of the graph are correct?

  2. When the rate of Photosynthesis is “0” the Calvin Cycle is not working.

  3. As you increase the light from 25 to 100 the chloroplast generates more ATP.

  4. At a light of 50, the rate of photosynthesis is limited by the amount of Calvin Cycle enzymes present.

  5. For the plant to actually grow, it has to be under a light intensity greater than

A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1 and 3 C. 2 and 4 D. 4 only E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

  1. Looking back at the figure above; recall that the curve integrates both cellular respiration and photosynthesis and that the rate of respiration is constant, regardless of the light intensity. At a light intensity of 200, what is the rate that CO 2 is actually being consumed by the Calvin Cycle? A. 20 B. 25 C. 40 D. 55 E. 156
  2. The rapid emergence of resistant bacteria is occurring worldwide, endangering the effectiveness of antibiotics. Which of the following mechanisms best accounts for penicillin resistance? A. Resistant bacteria have developed another enzyme to crosslink the peptidoglycan chains. B. Resistant bacteria are able to synthesize more of the cell wall peptide chains. C. Resistant bacteria are able to maintain the specific amino acids in the catalytic site of transpeptidase longer. D. Resistant bacteria no longer require the redox cofactor needed for transpeptidase to function.

  1. Here are the results of an experiment detecting horizontal gene transfer. If we could repeat the experiment in 5 million years, what do you think would be different? A. There would likely be two bands for mitDNA for Species C. B. The band for mitDNA for Species B would probably not be there. C. The band for nDNA for Species A would probably move closer to the top. D. There would likely by a band for mitDNA for Species A.

  2. The Petri plate shown here is one way antibiotic resistance is assessed. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of the Petri plate? A. The bacterium is more resistant to the antibiotic labelled 1 that the antibiotic labelled 3. B. The bacterium labelled 2 is more resistant to antibiotic than the bacterium labelled 5. C. The bacterium is more resistant to the antibiotic labelled 5 than the antibiotic labelled 2. D. The bacterium labelled 4 is more resistant to antibiotic than the bacterium labelled 6.

  3. Comparing the nuclear genome of eukaryotes with the genome of bacteria reveals a number of similarities and differences. Which of the following is a key difference?

  4. Eukaryotic genomes have their genes spaced more closely together.

  5. There are many more copies of the nuclear genome within a typical eukaryotic cell than copies of the genome found in large bacteria.

  6. All eukaryotic nuclear genomes are at least 10,000 times larger than any bacterial genome.

  7. Eukaryotic genomes contain more non-coding (junk) DNA than bacteria_._ A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1 and 3 C. 2 and 4 D. 4 only E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

The image shown here is an illustration of a eukaryotic protein-coding gene, emphasizing the regulatory sites involved in its expression. The grey boxes code for exons and the letters indicate select regions of the gene. Use this illustration to answer the next 2 questions (Q3 9 & Q 40 ). [Hint: Since this is a gene, the image is depicting DNA sequence, not pre-mRNA sequence – don’t get confused]

  1. Which of the following statements is correct?

  2. The - 10/-35 regions can be found at point A.

  3. The AUG sequence can be found at point B.

  4. The sequence TAA, TGA or TAG can be found at point E_._

  5. The sequence NCAGG can be found at point C. A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1 and 3 C. 2 and 4 D. 4 only E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

  6. Which of the following statements is correct?

  7. Transcription factors can bind at point A.

  8. The sequence at point C will eventually be recognized by snRNA.

  9. Point B will be transcribed but not translated.

  10. Transcription ends at point D_._ A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1 and 3 C. 2 and 4 D. 4 only E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

The image below is illustrating the process of simultaneous transcription and translation in a prokaryotic cell. Use this illustration to answer the question.

  1. Which of the following statements is correct?

  2. The direction indicated by B, is the correct direction of RNA polymerase movement.

  3. If C is pointing to the ribosome, then this ribosome is carrying the longest polypeptide chain in this illustration.

  4. If A is pointing to mRNA, then it is pointing to the 5’end of the mRNA.

  5. If D is pointing to the DNA, then it is pointing to the 5’ end of the DNA_._ A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1 and 3 C. 2 and 4 D. 4 only E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

  6. The image shown is an illustration of the tRNA gene of a prokaryotic cell. Boxes 1, 2 and 3 represent different regions of the tRNA gene. [Hint: Recall that tRNA is a non-coding RNA]. Which of the following statements is correct about the expression components in these boxed regions? A. Box 2 could have a start ATG sequence. B. Box 3 could contain the sequence for the stop codon. C. Box 1 could contain the SD box. D. Box 1 could contain the - 10 and - 35 recognition sequences. End of Midterm Exam. Check to ensure that you have written your student number and code on the scantron. Happy St. Patrick’s Day!

You may use this page for rough work. Only your scantron will be graded. This page will not be graded.