Download NSG 526 Exam Q&A: Clinical Modalities & Advanced Psychology and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!
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NSG 526 EXAM ( 2 ) WILKES UNIVERSITY CLINICAL
MODALITIESADV. PSYCH (LATEST 2025) QS & ANS WELL
EXPLAINEDALREDY GRADED A+ GUARANTEED SUCCESS
Instructions: Duration: 90 minutes Format: Multiple Choice Total Questions: 50 Passing Score: 80% or higher Section 1: Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy (CBT) & Dialectical Behavior Therapy (DBT) Q1: In CBT, the primary goal is to: A) Explore unconscious conflicts B) Change maladaptive thought patterns to influence behavior C) Provide insight into past trauma D) Establish a therapeutic alliance Answer: B) Change maladaptive thought patterns to influence behavior Q2: Which of the following is a core component of DBT? A) Free association B) Mindfulness and emotional regulation
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C) Hypnosis D) Dream analysis Answer: B) Mindfulness and emotional regulation Section 2: Group Therapy Dynamics Q3: The primary purpose of group therapy is to: A) Provide individual therapy in a group setting B) Facilitate changes by the patient to address identified problems C) Diagnose psychiatric disorders D) Replace individual therapy Answer: B) Facilitate changes by the patient to address identified problems Q4: A technique for dealing with an over-talkative client and silence from other participants in a group during therapy is to: A) Ignore the behavior B) Make an observation about the group's silence and invite others to comment C) Confront the over-talkative client D) End the session early Answer: B) Make an observation about the group's silence and invite others to comment Section 3: Behavioral Therapies Q5: Operant conditioning is the basis for behavior modification and uses:
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A) Sedation B) Serotonin syndrome C) Hypertension D) Weight gain Answer: B) Serotonin syndrome Section 5: Cognitive Development Theories Q9: According to Jean Piaget, children move through four different stages of cognitive development. The stage from birth to 2 years is called: A) Preoperational B) Sensorimotor C) Concrete operational D) Formal operational Answer: B) Sensorimotor Q10: The Strange Situation Test, used to classify children according to types of attachment, was developed by: A) Jean Piaget B) Erik Erikson C) Mary Ainsworth D) Sigmund Freud Answer: C) Mary Ainsworth
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Section 6: Existential Psychotherapy Q11: Existential psychotherapy, as conceptualized by Irvin Yalom, focuses on A) Analyzing dreams B) Exploring unconscious conflicts C) Addressing human suffering and the search for meaning D) Providing medication management Answer: C) Addressing human suffering and the search for meaning Q12: A key concept in existential psychotherapy is: A) Free association B) The search for meaning in life C) Hypnosis D) Dream analysis Answer: B) The search for meaning in life Section 7: Psychiatric Disorders and Treatments Q13: The first-line pharmacologic treatment for generalized anxiety disorder is: A) Benzodiazepines B) SSRIs C) Antipsychotics D) Beta-blockers
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C) Lithium D) Risperidone Answer: A) Methylphenidate Section 9: Geriatric Psychiatry Q17: A key distinguishing feature of delirium is: A) Slow onset of memory loss B) Acute onset and fluctuating consciousness C) Gradual decline in cognition D) Irreversibility Answer: B) Acute onset and fluctuating consciousness Q18: The most common cause of reversible confusion in elderly patients is: A) Dementia B) Parkinson’s disease C) Medication side effects D) Alzheimer’s disease
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Answer: C) Medication side effects Section 10: Documentation and Legal Aspects Q19: Proper documentation in psychiatric nursing includes: A) Personal opinions about patient behavior B) Objective, clear, and timely entries C) Vague terms like "appears fine" D) Avoidance of legal terms Answer: B) Objective, clear, and timely entries Q20: A patient admitted involuntarily has the right to: A) Leave at any time B) Refuse treatment unless a court order mandates otherwise C) Avoid documentation of their admission D) Withhold all personal information Answer: B) Refuse treatment unless a court order mandates otherwise
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B) History of substance abuse → C) A detailed suicide plan with access to means D) Passive death wish Answer: C) A detailed suicide plan with access to means Q24: The most important initial nursing action when a client presents in crisis is: A) Explore underlying childhood issues → B) Ensure client’s safety and assess for risk of harm C) Encourage participation in group therapy D) Refer immediately to outpatient services Answer: B) Ensure client’s safety and assess for risk of harm Q25: A client says, “I just can’t take it anymore. Everyone would be better off without me.” The nurse should respond: A) “That’s not true, you are loved.” B) “Have you thought about hurting yourself?” → C) “You seem overwhelmed. Are you thinking of ending your life?” D) “You should talk to your family.”
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Answer: C) “You seem overwhelmed. Are you thinking of ending your life?” Section 13: Trauma and Stressor-Related Disorders Q26: Which symptom is most characteristic of PTSD? A) Social withdrawal → B) Flashbacks and hypervigilance C) Elevated mood D) Emotional detachment only Answer: B) Flashbacks and hypervigilance Q27: A nurse working with a trauma survivor should prioritize: A) Exploring childhood trauma in detail B) Avoiding mention of trauma → C) Establishing safety and trust D) Encouraging immediate trauma narrative Answer: C) Establishing safety and trust
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→ B) Respiratory depression C) Hypertension D) Restlessness Answer: B) Respiratory depression Section 15: Psychopharmacology Q31: Which medication requires regular blood level monitoring due to risk of toxicity? A) Sertraline B) Risperidone → C) Lithium D) Fluoxetine Answer: C) Lithium Q32: EPS (extrapyramidal symptoms) are side effects commonly associated with: → A) Typical antipsychotics B) SSRIs C) Benzodiazepines D) Mood stabilizers
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Answer: A) Typical antipsychotics Q33: A patient taking an SSRI reports new onset of tremors and fever. The nurse suspects: A) Withdrawal symptoms → B) Serotonin syndrome C) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome D) Depression relapse Answer: B) Serotonin syndrome Section 16: Therapeutic Relationships Q34: The most important element in developing a therapeutic nurse-patient relationship is: → A) Establishing trust B) Being authoritative C) Sharing personal experiences D) Setting rigid boundaries Answer: A) Establishing trust
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A) Judgment B) Thought content → C) Recent memory D) Mood Answer: C) Recent memory Q38: Flight of ideas is commonly associated with: → A) Mania B) Depression C) Schizophrenia D) PTSD Answer: A) Mania Q39: A patient is experiencing command hallucinations. The nurse should: A) Encourage discussion of hallucinations without concern → B) Assess content and ensure safety C) Ignore the hallucination to avoid reinforcement D) Provide PRN pain medication
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Answer: B) Assess content and ensure safety Section 18: Ethics & Legal Considerations Q40: A client refuses medication. The nurse should first: A) Document noncompliance → B) Assess the client’s decision-making capacity C) Ask the physician to override refusal D) Administer the medication covertly Answer: B) Assess the client’s decision-making capacity Q41: A court-ordered client refuses all treatment. The nurse should: → A) Follow the court’s mandate while ensuring ethical practice B) Release the client C) Force medication without consent D) Ignore the refusal Answer: A) Follow the court’s mandate while ensuring ethical practice
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→ A) Explore the client’s beliefs and values B) Avoid cultural discussions C) Apply the nurse’s own values D) Assume similar views on health Answer: A) Explore the client’s beliefs and values Q45: A culturally competent nurse understands that: A) All clients benefit from the same interventions → B) Cultural practices affect health beliefs and treatment responses C) Culture should not influence care D) Cultural differences are minimal in psychiatry Answer: B) Cultural practices affect health beliefs and treatment responses Section 21: Advanced Practice & Leadership Q46: A Psychiatric Mental Health Nurse Practitioner may: → A) Diagnose, treat, and prescribe medications B) Provide care only under supervision
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C) Perform surgeries D) Offer physical therapy Answer: A) Diagnose, treat, and prescribe medications Q47: One key role of the PMHNP in leadership is to: A) Work independently without collaboration B) Focus only on medication → C) Advocate for mental health policy and system improvements D) Perform administrative duties only Answer: C) Advocate for mental health policy and system improvements Section 22: Evaluation & Outcomes Q48: The best indicator of progress in psychiatric treatment is: → A) Client reports improved functioning and uses coping strategies B) Client stops attending sessions C) Decreased medication use D) Shortened therapy sessions
