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NR 509 Bates Interactive Question Bank-Chapters 1-17, Quizzes of Nursing

Chapter 1: Approach to the Clinical Encounter 1. A 23-year-old physician assistant (PA) student found that she felt nervous when called upon to examine men in her age group. On one occasion, she encountered a young male patient who appeared embarrassed to see her walk into the room. What should the PA do to minimize their mutual discomfort? a. Adjust lighting so it is tangential to the patient’s body. b. Explain how the examination will proceed. c. Ask the patient where he comes from. d. Explain that she is a PA student. e. Provide ongoing interpretation of findings. 2. A 34-year-old male with a history of complex social and medical needs (including current substance abuse) presents to a primary care teaching clinic. The patient has experienced a number of adversarial relationships with prior clinicians,

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Chapter 1: Approach to the Clinical Encounter
1. A 23-year-old physician assistant (PA) student found that she felt nervous when called upon to examine men in her
age group. On one occasion, she encountered a young male patient who appeared embarrassed to see her walk into the
room. What should the PA do to minimize their mutual discomfort?
a. Adjust lighting so it is tangential to the patient’s body.
b. Explain how the examination will proceed.
c. Ask the patient where he comes from.
d. Explain that she is a PA student.
e. Provide ongoing interpretation of findings.
2. A 34-year-old male with a history of complex social and medical needs (including current substance abuse) presents to
a primary care teaching clinic. The patient has experienced a number of adversarial relationships with prior clinicians,
including voluntarily leaving two practices within the previous year and being asked to leave care at a third clinic due to
misbehavior. The attending physician desires to utilize the approaches to this patient that are most likely lead to
comprehensive care and patient compliance. Which of the following is the most appropriate interview style for the
attending physician to use?
a. Focusing on the need for immediate diagnostic certainty over personal connection
b. Taking charge of the interaction to meet the clinician’s desire to acquire diagnostic information
c. Following the patient’s lead to understand their thoughts, ideas, concerns, and requests
d. Deferring respect, empathy, humility, and sensitivity in favor of the acquisition of concrete details about the patient’s
condition
e. Taking a symptom-focused approach to reduce the involvement of the patient’s emotional difficulties
3. A 17-year-old male presents to a sexually transmitted disease clinic at the behest of his brother, who convinced the
patient to attend the clinic after he disclosed that he prefers homosexual partners but is afraid that his last partner may
have given him an infection. The patient expresses to the intake nurse that he is unashamed of his sexual orientation
and will not stay through the visit if he feels that he is dismissed or discriminated against because of it. The nurse
practitioner receives this communication prior to entering the examination room and decides to employ active listening
to best connect with the patient at this critical juncture in his care with the clinic. Which of the following is an example
of an active listening technique?
a. Ignoring visual cues to focus on the patient’s exact words
b. Setting aside the patient’s emotional state to focus on his medical needs
c. Paring down the patient’s concerns to concrete medical needs
d. Using nonverbal communication to encourage the patient to expand their narrative
e. Considering a differential diagnosis while the patient is speaking to maximize the patient’s time with the provider
4. A 42-year-old female mathematician presents for follow-up care regarding a new diagnosis of systemic lupus
erythematosus 6 months ago after a lengthy diagnostic process during which she was debilitated with fatigue and joint
pain. Since her diagnosis, she has been minimally compliant with medications and has switched her rheumatology
provider twice. She continues to feel ill, and, in explanation for her lack of adherence to the prescribed treatment, she
simply says, “I don’t like it.” At this initial visit with her third rheumatology provider, the clinician elects to explore the
issues behind her noncompliance before engaging in diagnostics and treatment using the FIFE model. Which of the
following best defines the elements of the FIFE model?
a. Focus, intensity, function, and evaluation
b. Facts, intensity, focus, and evidence
c. Feelings, ideas, function, and expectations
d. Feelings, impression, fantasy, and emotion
e. Facts, intelligence, fortuity, and eventuality
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Chapter 1: Approach to the Clinical Encounter

  1. A 23-year-old physician assistant (PA) student found that she felt nervous when called upon to examine men in her age group. On one occasion, she encountered a young male patient who appeared embarrassed to see her walk into the room. What should the PA do to minimize their mutual discomfort? a. Adjust lighting so it is tangential to the patient’s body. b. Explain how the examination will proceed. c. Ask the patient where he comes from. d. Explain that she is a PA student. e. Provide ongoing interpretation of findings.
  2. A 34-year-old male with a history of complex social and medical needs (including current substance abuse) presents to a primary care teaching clinic. The patient has experienced a number of adversarial relationships with prior clinicians, including voluntarily leaving two practices within the previous year and being asked to leave care at a third clinic due to misbehavior. The attending physician desires to utilize the approaches to this patient that are most likely lead to comprehensive care and patient compliance. Which of the following is the most appropriate interview style for the attending physician to use? a. Focusing on the need for immediate diagnostic certainty over personal connection b. Taking charge of the interaction to meet the clinician’s desire to acquire diagnostic information c. Following the patient’s lead to understand their thoughts, ideas, concerns, and requests d. Deferring respect, empathy, humility, and sensitivity in favor of the acquisition of concrete details about the patient’s condition e. Taking a symptom-focused approach to reduce the involvement of the patient’s emotional difficulties
  3. A 17-year-old male presents to a sexually transmitted disease clinic at the behest of his brother, who convinced the patient to attend the clinic after he disclosed that he prefers homosexual partners but is afraid that his last partner may have given him an infection. The patient expresses to the intake nurse that he is unashamed of his sexual orientation and will not stay through the visit if he feels that he is dismissed or discriminated against because of it. The nurse practitioner receives this communication prior to entering the examination room and decides to employ active listening to best connect with the patient at this critical juncture in his care with the clinic. Which of the following is an example of an active listening technique? a. Ignoring visual cues to focus on the patient’s exact words b. Setting aside the patient’s emotional state to focus on his medical needs c. Paring down the patient’s concerns to concrete medical needs d. Using nonverbal communication to encourage the patient to expand their narrative e. Considering a differential diagnosis while the patient is speaking to maximize the patient’s time with the provider
  4. A 42-year-old female mathematician presents for follow-up care regarding a new diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus 6 months ago after a lengthy diagnostic process during which she was debilitated with fatigue and joint pain. Since her diagnosis, she has been minimally compliant with medications and has switched her rheumatology provider twice. She continues to feel ill, and, in explanation for her lack of adherence to the prescribed treatment, she simply says, “I don’t like it.” At this initial visit with her third rheumatology provider, the clinician elects to explore the issues behind her noncompliance before engaging in diagnostics and treatment using the FIFE model. Which of the following best defines the elements of the FIFE model? a. Focus, intensity, function, and evaluation b. Facts, intensity, focus, and evidence c. Feelings, ideas, function, and expectations d. Feelings, impression, fantasy, and emotion e. Facts, intelligence, fortuity, and eventuality

Chapter 2: Interviewing, Communication, and Interpersonal Skills

  1. A 39-year-old nurse who is a well-established patient complains of irregular menstrual periods and pelvic pain. She says that she is having trouble sleeping and asks whether she could be given a “sleeping pill.” The patient also says she is thinking of leaving her job. What is the best “next step” in caring for this patient? a. Perform a pelvic examination. b. Obtain a urine sample for testing. c. Obtain a more complete description of problems. d. Obtain blood for testing. e. Ask about recent travel destinations.
  2. A 29-year-old female professional athlete presents to a new primary care provider with chronic menstrual complaints. She remarks to the nursing staff that, in the past, she has experienced a dismissal of her complaints because of her high level of physical fitness and conditioning. She is seeking a care provider who will explore the issue in more detail and work with her particular concerns. Which of the following is the description of the patient-centered care this individual seeks? a. Structured and clinician-centered with open-ended questions b. Validating and empathetic with open-ended questions c. Dismissive and concrete with open-ended questions d. Affirming and reassuring with close-ended questions e. Factual and structured with active listening
  3. A 36-year-old female air traffic controller presents to her primary care provider for a routine visit 3 months after losing her spouse to a lengthy battle with a neurodegenerative disease. The patient denies any psychiatric symptoms on review of systems and, in fact, states that she has slept better in the last month than she had in the previous years. She endorses a healthy support system, including the extended family of her deceased spouse, with whom she is still close. She becomes wistful and briefly tearful when speaking of the plans that they had when they first married that were never fulfilled; she then changes the subject rapidly to whether her Pap smear is due. Which of the following is an example of an empathetic response to this patient? a. Assuming that the event caused her to become depressed and expressing the same feeling on behalf of the patient b. Recognizing the patient’s emotions by asking or confirming how she feels about the event c. By allowing the crying patient to look around the room for tissues to permit her an excuse to hide her face and defer her emotions d. Presuming that the patient’s emotions meet social expectations, such as being depressed and even traumatized by her spouse’s death e. Narrowing the understanding of the patient’s emotional response to only thoughts and feelings that have been verbalized
  4. A 63-year-old male presents to establish care at a new primary care clinic to discuss issues with pain and fatigue. The clinician conducting the visit begins with general historical questions but quickly becomes suspicious that the patient is suffering from decompensated heart failure. When the patient mentions that he has had vague chest pain since last night, the clinician feels that the focus must be redirected to this potentially emergent condition. Which of the following interview techniques is the most appropriate to effectively manage this visit? a. Providing serial reassurances such as, “Don’t worry, you’re going to be fine.” b. Asking a series of negative questions such as, “You don’t have any swelling in your feet, do you?” c. Nonverbally cuing the patient to focus on his narrative regarding a motor vehicle accident d. (MVA) that led to back pain e. Asking leading questions that focus on the presumed diagnosis of chest pain
  1. A 29-year-old electrician complains of persistent cough and wheezing, particularly when he exercises. He says he smokes “occasionally” but rarely so much that he needs to purchase cigarettes: “Mostly, I bum them,” he says, chuckling. Upon hearing this information, what is the best next step on the part of the clinician? a. Determine the patient’s exercise regimen. b. Determine the number of pack-years the patient smokes. c. Conduct a mental status examination. d. Explain the relationship between smoking and cancer. e. Determine the patient’s immunization history.
  2. A 47-year-old fitness trainer visits the physician assistant (PA) because of skin dryness, night sweats, and irregular menstrual periods. It is the PA’s first contact with this patient. The patient notes that “My sex life has really gone downhill lately” and says that she is considering divorcing her husband of 20 years, stating that “He’s not a bad guy. I just think that I can do better.” In which of the following ways should the clinician proceed? a. Obtain a menstrual history for the previous 6 months. b. Help the patient review the pros and cons of divorce. c. Inform the patient that menopause is a normal part of aging. d. Conduct a breast examination. e. Determine the patient’s out-of-country travel history.
  3. A 26-year-old homeless male presents for a new-patient evaluation at a community health center. He has a history of intravenous drug use, from which he contracted hepatitis C. He also suffers from uncontrolled asthma that he has had since childhood, with treatment including frequent doses of oral steroids when he cannot keep inhalers in his possession. Two years ago, he was diagnosed with bipolar disorder. On today’s visit, his main concern is a small abscess in his right antecubital fossa at a heroin injection site. Which of the following is the best approach to the health history for this patient at his first visit? a. A clinician-centered health history b. A health history with only yes–no options c. A review of systems (ROS) only d. A problem-focused health history e. A comprehensive health history Chapter 4: Physical Examination
  4. One important examination technique involves using the third fingers of each hand to determine the health of internal organs. What is the name of this technique? a. Auscultation b. Percussion c. Inspection d. Palpation e. Listening
  5. A 59-year-old unemployed man complains of almost always feeling tired and hungry, despite getting sufficient rest and having a good appetite and access to sufficient food. The patient is obese and, despite the warm weather outside, wearing thermal socks with his sandals. He says this is because his feet are always cold and “feel funny.” With which body system should the clinician begin the examination? a. Lower extremities b. Head and neck c. Posterior thorax

d. Abdomen e. Nervous system

  1. A 65-year-old retired pilot visits the clinic because of recurrent headache. The patient reports dizziness of recent onset (previous 2 weeks) and occasional numbness on the left side. Which of the following systems or regions should be examined in the clinician’s focused assessment? a. Nervous b. Cardiovascular c. Musculoskeletal d. Respiratory e. Gastrointestinal Chapter 6: Health Maintenance and Screening
  2. A physician assistant (PA) has had a long day and has seen many patients. The last patient of the day is an 80-year-old woman brought to the office by her 35-year-old granddaughter. This is the patient’s first visit to the office. As part of the patient’s past history, the PA obtains information about childhood illnesses and adult illnesses and then moves on to inquire about the family history. Which important area of the past history has she omitted? a. Chief complaint b. Immunizations c. Allergies d. Medications e. Social history
  3. A 42-year-old woman presents with fatigue associated with a 40-lb weight gain over the past 2 years. She had always struggled with her weight but has continued to gain despite various attempts at diet and exercise regimens; she inquires if she might be a candidate for gastric bypass surgery. In evaluating patients who are overweight, which of the following best defines obesity in medical terms? a. A patient who weighs at least 1 standard deviation (SD) greater than the mean for his or her age and gender b. A patient with a body mass index (BMI) > c. A patient with a body mass index (BMI) < d. A patient consuming >1.5× the recommended daily caloric intake e. A patient with a waist-to-hip ratio (WHR) >1.
  4. The CAGE questionnaire is a short screening examination administered in the office to evaluate for which of the following? a. Alcohol misuse b. Risk for illicit substance abuse c. Likelihood that the patient complaints are “psychosomatic” d. Major depressive disorder e. Bipolar disorder
  5. A 53-year-old caterer comes to the clinic for a routine examination. She has type 2 diabetes mellitus, which is well controlled on medication. Her history from her last visit reveals that she smoked one pack of cigarettes a day at that time. The 5 As Model is a useful approach to take with trying to help patients to quit smoking. What is the 5 As Model? a. Admonish, action, available, assess, alleviating factors b. Agitate, assist, alleviating factors, able, action c. Affable, associated manifestations, ask, admonish, available
  1. The positive predictive value of a test is calculated as the number of true positives identified by the test divided by the total positives found by the test. If a novel test for strep throat yields 150 true-positive results and 150 false-positive results, what is the positive predictive value of this test? a. 10% b. 25% c. 50% d. 75% e. 100%
  2. The negative predictive value of a test is calculated as the number of true negatives identified by the test divided by the total negatives found by the test. If a novel test for strep throat yields 85 true-negative results and 15 false-negative results, what is the negative predictive value of this test? a. 10% b. 15% c. 75% d. 85% e. 99%
  3. A 58-year-old carpenter presents for his annual physical examination. The physician assistant notes a systolic murmur on auscultation of the aorta. However, she does not immediately conclude that this patient has aortic stenosis. Which of the following is the reason that she seeks additional information? a. Systolic murmurs have high sensitivity and high specificity for aortic stenosis. b. Systolic murmurs have low sensitivity and low specificity for aortic stenosis. c. Systolic murmurs have low sensitivity but high specificity for aortic stenosis. d. Systolic murmurs have high sensitivity but low specificity for aortic stenosis. e. Systolic murmurs are unrelated to aortic stenosis.
  4. A mother brings her 8-year-old daughter to the clinic because she found a tick in the girl’s hair and would like her daughter to be tested for Lyme disease. The nurse practitioner (NP) explains that the enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA), an early test for Lyme disease, is effective in finding early cases of Lyme disease but can also give positive results in some people who do not have the disease, making additional testing necessary. This means that the ELISA test has which of the following? a. Low sensitivity, high specificity b. High sensitivity, high specificity c. High sensitivity, low specificity d. Low sensitivity, low specificity e. Undetermined sensitivity and specificity
  5. A theoretical laboratory test for infection with HIV is known to have high sensitivity. This means that the test has which of the following? a. Good ability to rule in HIV in those who do have HIV b. Good ability to rule out HIV in those who do not have HIV c. High intraobserver reliability d. High interobserver reliability e. Good ability to diagnose AIDS
  6. A theoretical new laboratory test for strep throat has high specificity. When a test has high specificity, clinicians can be confident in which of the following aspects?

a. If the test result is positive, the patient probably has strep throat. b. If the test result is positive, the patient probably does not have strep throat. c. If the test result is negative, the patient probably has strep throat. d. If the test result is negative, the patient probably does not have strep throat. e. If the test result is positive, a confirmatory test should be performed. Chapter 8: General Survey, Vital Signs, and Pain

  1. Weight change may indicate the presence of important underlying pathology requiring further investigation. Which of the following best describes a significant weight change that requires further evaluation? a. A 45-year-old male with baseline weight of 280 lb who decides to undertake a light exercise regimen and loses 15% of his total body weight in 3 months b. A 32-year-old female with a baseline weight of 175 lb who checks her weight irregularly but reports a 5-lb unintended weight loss over 3 months c. A 45-year-old recently menopausal female who gains 5% beyond her baseline weight of 140 lb in 6 months d. A 26-year-old female with a baseline body mass index (BMI) of 25 who loses 5% of her body weight with 6 months of diet and exercise modification e. A 31-year-old male with a baseline body mass index (BMI) of 20 who loses 3 lb after a prolonged bout of infectious gastroenteritis
  2. A 19-year-old student of art history presents to clinic after a syncopal (fainting) episode at school. He is notably thin; on a thorough review of his medical history, he admits that he eats only minimally to maintain a very low body weight that he feels is ideal. He is embarrassed that his issues were discussed by peers after this episode, especially because he believes that this is a problem that is only faced by girls and women. Concerning the two most common eating disorders (anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa), which of the following statements is true? a. Men and women are both afflicted, but with a female:male prevalence ratio estimated at ~2:1. b. Both of these eating disorders are associated with a body mass index (BMI) of <17.5. c. Both of these eating disorders are associated with a real or imagined fear of appearing fat. d. Persons with eating disorders are generally easily identified by their appearance. e. The prognosis is similar regardless of whether individuals are diagnosed and treated in the early or late stage of these disorders.
  3. A 55-year-old air traffic control agent reports his home blood pressure log to clinic after he was diagnosed with hypertension at a prior visit. He notes that he consistently measures within the normal range at home, but seems to fall outside the normal range every time he comes to the clinic. Which of the following blood pressure measurements is considered to be most accurate (i.e., reflecting the patient’s “true” blood pressure)? a. Blood pressure recorded in three positions in the health practitioner’s office b. Three separate blood pressure measurements recorded by a medical technician within 90 minutes of awakening in the morning in an office setting using an automated device c. Blood pressure recorded in three positions in the health practitioner’s office after resting for a 10-minute period in a supine position d. Regular ambulatory monitoring recorded outside of the office setting e. A total of six blood pressures averaged over three visits to a health practitioner’s office over a 3-month period
  4. A 68-year-old retired college professor presents for routine physical examination. After the patient has been reading a novel in the waiting room for ~20 minutes, the technician records his blood pressure in both arms using an automated device. The technician notes a 20-mm Hg difference in systolic blood pressure between the right and left arms; he repeats the readings 10 minutes later and records the same asymmetrical systolic blood pressure. Which of the following is true regarding this physical finding?

seeking a firm diagnosis and adequate treatment of his complaints. Which of the following statements is true regarding chronic pain? a. Following assessment and evaluation, ~80% of patients with non-cancer–related pain report control of their symptoms. b. Chronic pain is defined as pain not due to cancer or a recognized medical condition that persists for >3–6 months. c. Chronic pain is defined as focused pain lasting >8 months following acute injury or illness. d. In primary care practices, non-cancer–related chronic pain is seen in <10% of patients. e. Pain that recurs at intervals of months or years is never considered to be “chronic pain.”

  1. Disparities in pain treatment have been well described in numerous studies comparing Caucasian patients to those of African American and Hispanic origin. Which of the following statements is true concerning this issue? a. Racial and ethnic biases are only relevant in geographic areas that have a history of racial and ethnic discrimination. b. Racial and ethnic biases never involve two persons of the same race or ethnic group. c. Language barriers do not contribute to the problem of racial and ethnic biases. d. Biases of the treating clinician are associated with overtreatment of pain in minority patients and non-English speakers. e. Biases of the treating clinician are associated with under-treatment of pain in minority patients and non-English speakers. Chapter 9: Cognition, Behavior, and Mental Status
  2. Which of the following statements is true concerning mental health disorders in primary care? a. The prevalence for mental disorders is estimated to be ~10%, of which only 25% are not diagnosed. b. Anxiety disorders are the most prevalent of all diagnoses in this setting. c. Somatic symptom disorder (DSM-5) is distinctly uncommon in this setting and constitutes less than 5% of these disorders. d. Mood disorders make up ~25% of all diagnoses. e. Alcohol and substance abuse are not considered mental health disorders.
  3. Which of the following complaints/findings is considered to be a patient identifier for mental health screening? a. High use of health services due to chronic unstable medical diagnoses b. Symptoms lasting for >2 weeks c. Acute pain syndromes of 10 days’ duration that require opiates for relief d. Substance abuse e. A patient with type I diabetes and neuropathic pain
  4. A 38-year-old accountant presents to the office with a series of generalized complaints. He relates that he feels a loss of pleasure in daily activities, has difficulty sleeping, and is experiencing problems making decisions. Which of the following best explains the patient’s presentation? a. Substance abuse with anhedonia b. Bipolar disorder in the early pre-excitatory phase c. Histrionic personality d. Depression e. Antisocial personality
  5. Concerning hallucinations, an abnormal perception experienced by a patient, which of the following statements is true about this abnormality?

a. They include false perceptions associated with dreaming and occurring with falling asleep and awakening. b. Objective testing can be performed by a trained neuropsychologist to ascertain the correct diagnosis associated with this complaint. c. Although alcoholism may be associated with abnormalities of perception, it is not considered a cause of hallucinations as this finding is due to its direct toxic effects. d. It may occur in association with a number of conditions including delirium and dementia, posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), and schizophrenia. e. By definition, hallucinations are confined to those abnormal perceptions that are either auditory or visual in nature.

  1. A 24-year-old veteran returns from his second tour of duty in the Middle East. He was witness to a number of violent military encounters and experienced the death of several of his closest friends. He describes a number of problems including nightmares, poor sleep pattern, and mild panic attacks. In persons with trauma- and stress-related disorders as well as other disorders that may be associated with hallucinations and illusions, which of the following statements is true that distinguishes these two entities from each other? a. Illusions occur only when awake, whereas hallucinations can occur both while awake and while sleeping. b. Illusions are a misinterpretation of real stimuli, whereas hallucinations are subjective perceptions in the absence of real stimuli. c. Illusions involve an irrational fear or perceptions, whereas hallucinations are a misinterpretation of real external stimuli. d. Hallucinations may be visual or auditory, causing an alteration of the real external world, whereas illusions are entirely imaginary. e. Hallucinations by definition never include somatic perceptions, whereas illusions always involve at least some component of a somatic complaint.
  2. Abstract thinking is an important component of the human thought process. A person’s ability to understand questions that test his or her ability to answer appropriately is dependent upon a number of factors. Which one of the following answers is true in identifying a patient with concrete thinking and a reduced ability to think abstractly? a. An inability to correctly perform serial 7s b. An inability to spell “world” backward c. An inability to name the occupations of common well-known public figures such as the President and Vice President d. An inability to draw a clock correctly including all numbers and make it tell time as requested (i.e., 10:15) e. An inability to discern the similarity between two words (e.g., a cat and a mouse by answering “The cat chases the mouse.”)
  3. Concerning a patient that may demonstrate a diagnosis of aphasia, which of the following statements is true? a. It involves a loss of the voice or a slurring or hoarseness of speech secondary to pathology of the larynx or its nerve supply. b. It is best characterized by slurred speech with an associated defect in language control. c. It is best characterized by involuntary, rhythmic, repetitive movements involving the tongue and jaws making speech difficult to comprehend. d. The ability to write a full correct sentence does not rule out the presence of aphasia in a patient. e. It is defined as an inability to produce or understand language. Chapter 1 0 : Skin, Hair, and Nails
  4. A 42-year-old fair-skinned woman of Irish origin presents with an abnormal skin growth that was first noted 7 years ago. On examination, a 2 × 3-cm lesion is noted over her left bicep. Which of the following historical elements most increases the suspicion that the lesion is malignant?

b. Approximately 50% of melanomas are initially noticed by patients then brought to the attention of a practitioner. c. General screening programs conducted by medical facilities identify ~75% of melanomas. d. Most melanomas are initially identified in individuals with positive family histories by DNA analysis for causative genes. e. Asymmetry of a mole is rarely associated with melanoma.

  1. A concerned mother brings her 9-year-old daughter to the clinic with several days of a diffuse rash on the trunk. The child was previously healthy and is current on her vaccinations. The mother relates a history of decreased appetite, easy fatigue, and low-grade subjective fevers. On examination, temperature is recorded at 100.5ºF, the rash is confirmed as described by the mother, and additional physical findings of a strawberry tongue and erythema of the palms and soles are noted. Nonpainful peeling of the skin of the child’s fingertips is noted incidentally. Based on the history and physical findings, which is the most likely diagnosis and course of action? a. Nonspecific viral exanthem, for which observant management is advised b. Contact dermatitis, for which antihistamines are indicated c. Measles, for which review of the vaccination history is critical d. Kawasaki disease, for which close monitoring and possibly hospitalization might be required e. Strep throat, for which amoxicillin is indicated
  2. A 16-year-old male high school student presents with a primary concern of acne. He relates a history of 2 years of moderate mild acne and closed comedones (whiteheads), which have recently worsened such that a classmate started calling him a pirate due to a large pustule that developed at the tip of his nose. He has increasing outbreaks of cyst-like acne as well as a generally poor complexion with pitting and scarring from prior outbreaks. Which of the following best describes this condition in the adolescent population? a. Acne vulgaris affects <50% of the adolescent population. b. Acne vulgaris is associated with an identified virus for which there is no definitive treatment. c. Acne vulgaris is associated with blockage of sebaceous glands, stress, humidity, and heavy sweating as well as other contributory factors. d. The primary hormonal stimulus for acne vulgaris is estrogen, causing preferentially worse cases in females and males with lower testosterone levels. e. Acne vulgaris is always associated with underlying endocrine disorders and/or pituitary dysfunction.
  3. A 72-year-old woman presents with concerns about several ruby-red spots on her chest and abdomen. She reports that these are growing in both size and number over time. On examination, the provider notes a number of cherry angiomas at the locations indicated by the patient. No other abnormalities are noted. Which of the following best describes the clinical characteristics and significance of a cherry angioma? a. Cherry angiomas never show blanching under pressure. b. Cherry angiomas are associated with liver disease and B vitamin deficiencies. c. Cherry angiomas are benign and may increase in size and number with aging. d. Cherry angiomas rarely occur on the trunk and are most often noted on the legs near veins. e. Cherry angiomas are a marker for underlying pathology that requires additional evaluation.
  4. A 28-year-old male business executive presents to a primary care provider with concerns about hair loss. He is otherwise healthy without chronic medical conditions or current medications. He has a chart history of allergy to sulfa medications, although this happened when he was a young child, and he does not recall the incident or the reaction. He is unsure at what age his father went bald, as he never remembers his father having hair. He remarks jokingly that he is losing more hair than his dogs at home, who shed frequently but are otherwise healthy. On examination, he has a single uniform oval patch of hair loss over the left temporal area without any scaling, inflammation, or other skin changes where the hair is missing. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for his hair loss? a. Male pattern baldness, as evidenced by his father’s baldness at a young age

b. Tinea capitis, as evidenced by his exposure to animals that may carry this pathogen c. Trichotillomania, as evidenced by his anxiety and need to diffuse uncomfortable situations with inappropriate humor d. Alopecia areata, as evidenced by patchy hair loss without associated skin changes e. Drug rash, as evidenced by his allergy to sulfa drugs

  1. A 33-year-old nurse presents with a history of weight gain, decreased energy, and menorrhagia over the past several months. Review of her family history reveals Hashimoto thyroiditis and hypothyroidism in four female first-degree relatives (her mother and three sisters). Which of the following skin findings best supports a diagnosis of clinical hypothyroidism? a. Discoid rash, alopecia, oral ulcers, and Raynaud phenomenon b. Warm moist skin, hyperpigmentation, and pretibial myxedema c. Dry skin, myxedema, alopecia of the eyebrows, and brittle nails d. Spider angiomas, telangiectasia, palmar erythema, and Terry nails e. Thickened, taut skin with sclerodactyly and telangiectasia Chapter 12: Eyes
  2. A 74-year-old man is being seen because of a 1-day history of a painful right eye. He also mentions that he has blurred vision in that eye. He thought something had blown into his eye, but after flushing it out, the pain and blurred vision remains. What is the best course of action? a. Reassure him that pain from a foreign body can remain for a day or two (even after the foreign body is removed). b. Perform a vision examination. c. Perform a complete neurological examination. d. Refer to an ophthalmologist emergently with the possibility of corneal ulcer, uveitis, or acute glaucoma. e. Check his blood pressure.
  3. An 87-year-old woman who is generally healthy and cognitively sharp complains to the clinician of slow loss of vision, with similar problems in both eyes, particularly when she looks straight ahead. She is having difficulty reading of late. What is a reasonable response to her? a. “This is a common occurrence with aging and unlikely to have a diagnosis.” b. “This is an unusual occurrence, even among elderly, and may be due to a problem within the brain (since it is bilateral).” c. “Are you experiencing depression or stress?” d. “This may be the onset of macular degeneration, which an ophthalmologist should confirm.” e. “This is a classic ‘floater’ and no cause for concern.”
  4. A 70-year-old man complains of double vision. Which of the following associated symptoms or signs would be worrying about an underlying neurological problem (as opposed to pathology in the eye)? a. Abnormality in extraocular movements on examination b. Diplopia persisting in the right eye when the left eye is closed c. An associated conjunctivitis d. Worsening vision bilaterally on examination e. Symptoms of flashing lights Chapter 1 3 : Ears and Nose
  5. An 82-year-old gentleman seems to be speaking loudly during an examination, suggesting that he may not be hearing well. What is a good question to ask him to help identify whether or not he has hearing loss?
  1. A student is practicing the performance of a lung examination on a classmate. Which of the following is the correct order for performing the components of the lung examination? a. Auscultation, inspection, palpation, and percussion b. Auscultation, percussion, palpation, and inspection c. Inspection, palpation, percussion, and auscultation d. Auscultation, inspection, palpation, and percussion e. Inspection, auscultation, percussion, and palpation f. Palpation, inspection, auscultation, and percussion
  2. A 14-year-old high school student comes to the clinic for a 3-month history of periodic dyspnea when playing basketball. It resolves shortly after resting. He has not had fever, chills, cough, sputum production, or chest pain. He has no history of serious illness. Based on the boy’s history, asthma is suspected. Which of the following sounds heard on expiration during lung auscultation would be most suggestive of asthma? a. Mediastinal crunch b. Pleural rub c. Rhonchi d. Wheezes e. Stridor
  3. A clinician is percussing the lungs of a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease to see if they sound hyperresonant. Which of the following is an example of good technique for percussion? a. Strike using the tip of the third finger. b. The proximal interphalangeal joint is the joint that is struck. c. Put the third and fourth fingers next to each other on the chest. d. Strike using the finger pad of the fourth finger. e. The wrist is kept still during percussion.
  4. A 29-year-old waiter comes to the clinic for a 2-month history of a cough. When he lowers his gown so the clinician can listen to his lungs, the clinician notices a depression of the lower part of his sternum. Which of the following best describes the appearance of his chest? a. Barrel chest b. Flail chest c. Pectus excavatum d. Pigeon chest e. Thoracic kyphoscoliosis
  5. A 13-year-old girl is brought by her mother to the clinic one day before the start of eighth grade because of a 3-day history of episodes of shortness of breath. When she gets the shortness of breath, she also notices tingling around her lips. She has no fever, cough, sputum production, or chest pain. She has no history of serious illness and takes no medications. Vital signs are within normal limits. Cardiac, lung, and extremity examinations show no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? a. Aspiration of a foreign body b. Anxiety c. Asthma d. Left-sided heart failure e. Pneumonia
  1. A 70-year-old patient has suspected chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. The clinician instructs the patient to take a deep breath in, and then with his mouth open, breathe out as fast and completely as he can. For what is the clinician checking? a. Bronchophony b. Egophony c. Tactile fremitus d. Forced expiratory time e. Whispered pectoriloquy
  2. After examining a patient who is in the hospital for shortness of breath, the clinician records the following for lung examination: “There is dullness to percussion over the right lung base. Breath sounds are absent at the right lung base. There are no crackles, wheezes, or rhonchi. There are no transmitted voice sounds.” Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? a. Atelectasis b. Left-sided heart failure c. Pneumonia d. Pneumothorax e. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
  3. A 1 6 - year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department (ED) after a motor vehicle accident for shortness of breath for 1 hour. A chest x-ray shows a rib fracture and a pneumothorax on the right side. The ED physician decides that a chest tube needs to be placed in the fourth intercostal space. How does he determine where the fourth intercostal space is? a. He finds the suprasternal notch and then moves his finger laterally to the third rib. The fourth intercostal space is just below the third rib. b. He finds the angle of Louis and then moves laterally to the first rib. He walks down from there to the fourth intercostal space. c. He finds the sternal angle and then moves his finger laterally to the second rib. He then walks down to the second intercostal space, third rib, third intercostal space, fourth rib and then the fourth intercostal space. d. He finds the clavicle. The second intercostal space is just below the clavicle. He then walks down to third rib, third intercostal space, fourth rib, and then the fourth intercostal space. e. He finds the angle of Louis and then moves his finger laterally to the third rib. The fourth intercostal space is just below the third rib. Chapter 16: Cardiovascular System
  4. An elderly patient with a history of smoking two packs of cigarettes a day for 50 years complains to her physician of progressive shortness of breath. On cardiac examination, the physician feels the most prominent palpable impulse to be in the xiphoid area. This is most likely a result of what condition? a. Aortic stenosis b. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy c. Hypertension d. Pulmonary hypertension e. Mitral regurgitation
  5. A newborn baby has an embryologic defect affecting the aortic valve. What other cardiac valve is most likely to be affected? a. Tricuspid valve b. Pulmonic valve

d. Decrease in blood pressure e. Repair of a ventricular septal defect

  1. A 55-year-old actress sustains a heart attack, and the follow-up electrocardiogram demonstrates a left bundle branch block. What would be the likely duration of the QRS complex? a. 75 milliseconds b. 90 milliseconds c. 95 milliseconds d. 100 milliseconds e. 125 milliseconds
  2. A 55-year-old truck driver with obstructive sleep apnea has diastolic heart failure. An echocardiogram demonstrates significant biatrial enlargement. What portion of his electrocardiogram would likely be abnormal? a. QRS complex b. R wave c. S wave d. P wave e. T wave
  3. A 45-year-old physician is placed on a β-blocker for hypertension. Prior to medication administration, the patient’s heart rate is 75 beats per minute with a cardiac output of 5 liters per minute. Following initiation of the medication, the heart rate decreases to 60 beats per minute without a change in stroke volume. What would be the expected new cardiac output? a. 3 liters per minute b. 4 liters per minute c. 5 liters per minute d. 6 liters per minute e. 10 liters per minute Chapter 17: Peripheral Vascular System
  4. A 68-year-old retired administrative assistant complains of a 3-month history of recurring pain after ambulating that radiates from her back in the upper lumbar region into both buttocks, bilateral thighs, and mid-calf regions. Her pain is typically improved by sitting or by leaning forward. The origin of her pain is likely secondary to which of the following? a. Peripheral arterial disease (PAD) b. Venous stasis c. Acute arterial occlusion d. Neurogenic claudication e. Abdominal aortic aneurysm
  5. A patient that has a known history of cardiovascular disease including a myocardial infarction and positive ankle– brachial index indicating peripheral arterial disease in his left leg is now having some issues with erectile dysfunction (ED). The clinician suspects it may be due to medications or further vascular disease. He does not complain of any other symptoms. If his symptoms are related to vascular disease, where would the lesion likely be located? a. Aortorenal b. Iliac pudendal c. Common femoral d. Superficial femoral

e. Popliteal

  1. A 73-year-old retired salesman presents to the Emergency Department complaining of chest pain that started about 2 hours ago. Electrocardiogram, cardiac enzymes, and chest x-ray are normal. The nurse notes that his blood pressures in the right arm are significantly lower than of blood pressures in his left arm. Based on history and physical examination, which of the following will most likely explain his signs and symptoms? a. Dissecting aortic aneurysm b. Coarctation of the aorta c. Myocardial infarction (MI) d. Pulmonary embolism (PE) e. Pericarditis
  2. A 19-year-old carwash attendant sustained a laceration to the ulnar aspect of his mid-forearm while at work last week. He did not have it evaluated at that time and is now noticing purulent discharge and increasing pain from the wound along with fever and chills. Where would the clinician expect to find the first signs of lymphadenopathy? a. Epitrochlear nodes b. Lateral axillary nodes c. Central axillary nodes d. Infraclavicular nodes e. Cervical chain nodes
  3. When assessing for the femoral pulse, where should the clinician begin deeply palpating? a. Above the inguinal ligament, just lateral to the symphysis pubis b. Above the inguinal ligament, just medial to the anterior superior iliac spine c. Below the inguinal ligament, midway between the anterior superior iliac spine and symphysis pubis d. Below the inguinal ligament, just lateral to the symphysis pubis e. Below the inguinal ligament, just medial to the anterior superior iliac spine
  4. The clinician is palpating pulses in the foot of a diabetic patient while in the clinic. A strong pulse is felt located on the dorsum of the foot, just lateral to the extensor tendon of the big toe. Which artery is being assessed? a. Arterial arch of the foot b. Posterior tibial c. Dorsalis pedis d. Popliteal e. Femoral
  5. A 61-year-old retired librarian was recently diagnosed with ovarian cancer. She was otherwise healthy until her recent cancer diagnosis. She has not been feeling well lately and has had a cough and some mild shortness of breath for the past couple of days. She now presents to the clinic complaining of pain and swelling in her right groin and leg, which she says is been there for about a week but is worsening. On physical examination, 2+ edema of the right leg up to the thigh; 1+ femoral, popliteal, dorsalis pedis, and posterior tibial pulses; and no significant erythema are noted. What is the chief concern with this patient? a. Acute arterial occlusion b. Superficial thrombophlebitis c. Acute lymphangitis d. Pulmonary embolism (PE) e. Ovarian metastasis