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NR 509 Bates final Chapter 18: Breast and Axillae, Quizzes of Nursing

Chapter 18: Breast and Axillae 1. A 44-year-old female mathematician presents to clinic with a complaint of a mass in the right breast. Her partner noticed this mass 2 days ago, and the patient feels guilty because she has only had one mammogram and does not engage in breast self-examination (BSE) on any regular basis. She has no family history of breast cancer, and her prior mammogram was ordered as a routine screening test at age 43 years after a brief discussion with her primary care provider. After a thorough investigation reveals a benign cyst, what advice should be given to this patient about screening for breast cancer in her age group? a. BSE is well evidenced, and all recommending agencies agree that it should be taught and reinforced. b. Clinical breast examination (CBE) is superior to BSE and should be a routine part of annual examinations starting at age 30 years. c. This patient was in compliance with the U.S. Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF)

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Chapter 18: Breast and Axillae
1. A 44-year-old female mathematician presents to clinic with a complaint of a mass in the right breast. Her
partner noticed this mass 2 days ago, and the patient feels guilty because she has only had one mammogram
and does not engage in breast self-examination (BSE) on any regular basis. She has no family history of
breast cancer, and her prior mammogram was ordered as a routine screening test at age 43 years after a brief
discussion with her primary care provider. After a thorough investigation reveals a benign cyst, what advice
should be given to this patient about screening for breast cancer in her age group?
a. BSE is well evidenced, and all recommending agencies agree that it should be taught and reinforced.
b. Clinical breast examination (CBE) is superior to BSE and should be a routine part of annual examinations
starting at age 30 years.
c. This patient was in compliance with the U.S. Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF)
recommendations for her age group and risk factors prior to her current complaint
d. Mammography is most sensitive and specific for women in their 40s, when breast tissue is still dense
enough to image accurately.
e. Breast cancer screening is extremely well studied, and no controversy exists on the recommended norms
for screening and follow-up.
Rationale: This patient was in compliance with the USPSTF recommendations for her age group and risk
factors prior to her current complaint. The USPSTF recommends that women age <50 years discuss risks
and benefits with their provider and decide on appropriate screening for their individual preferences and
needs. These recommendations are controversial and likely to change again over time, but they are
underpinned by one key issue: Mammograms have low sensitivity and specificity in younger women with
higher
2. A 42-year-old female website developer presents for an annual preventive examination with questions
about breast cancer screening. She is concerned about the radiation exposure associated with mammography
and is interested in magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) as a possible alternative for routine screening. She is
otherwise healthy with no family history of breast, ovarian, or colon cancer. Which of the following is true
about MRI as a screening modality for breast cancer in the general population?
a. Breast cancer screening by MRI has been well studied in the general population.
b. Sensitivity of screening for breast cancer increases with breast MRI at the expense of specificity.
c. This patient is an ideal candidate for screening via breast MRI based on current evidence
d. Women at low lifetime risk of breast cancer (<20%) are recommended to undergo screening MRI. e.
Known BRCA1 or BRCA2 mutation is insufficient criteria to justify screening with breast MRI. Rationale:
Sensitivity of screening for breast cancer increases with breast MRI at the expense of specificity. Increased
sensitivity (in this case, higher-resolution imaging to pick up subtler disease) is often traded for reduced
specificity (in the form of discovering many small items of no pathological significance). This is a core
concept in designing screening tests—very sensitive tests often pick up false positives, while very specific
tests often rule out disease effectively by missing many actual cases. Balance must be sought between these
two when setting thresholds for positive and negative screens. Breast cancer screening by MRI has been
well studied in the general population is incorrect. This screening modality has only been studied in high-
risk populations. This patient is an ideal candidate for screening via breast MRI based on current evidence is
incorrect. This patient meets no known criteria for screening with breast MRI (known BRCA mutation,
history of chest radiation, etc.). Women at low lifetime risk of breast cancer (<20%) are recommended to
undergo screening MRI is incorrect. Only women at high lifetime risk (>20%) are current recommended to
utilize breast MRI as a screening tool. Known BRCA1 or BRCA2 mutation is insufficient criteria to justify
screening with breast MRI is incorrect. The BRCA1 or BRCA2 mutation confers a risk >20% of breast
cancer over a lifetime, which is considered sufficient criteria for screening with MRI rather than
mammogram.
3. A 35-year-old G0P0 woman presents to clinic with a complaint of bilateral nipple discharge. This discharge
started several weeks ago and has occurred at irregular intervals since that time. She does not complain of local
tenderness, redness, fever, or any other systemic symptoms aside from slightly irregular periods over the last
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Download NR 509 Bates final Chapter 18: Breast and Axillae and more Quizzes Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

Chapter 18: Breast and Axillae

  1. A 4 4 - year-old female mathematician presents to clinic with a complaint of a mass in the right breast. Her partner noticed this mass 2 days ago, and the patient feels guilty because she has only had one mammogram and does not engage in breast self-examination (BSE) on any regular basis. She has no family history of breast cancer, and her prior mammogram was ordered as a routine screening test at age 43 years after a brief discussion with her primary care provider. After a thorough investigation reveals a benign cyst, what advice should be given to this patient about screening for breast cancer in her age group? a. BSE is well evidenced, and all recommending agencies agree that it should be taught and reinforced. b. Clinical breast examination (CBE) is superior to BSE and should be a routine part of annual examinations starting at age 30 years. c. This patient was in compliance with the U.S. Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF) recommendations for her age group and risk factors prior to her current complaint d. Mammography is most sensitive and specific for women in their 40s, when breast tissue is still dense enough to image accurately. e. Breast cancer screening is extremely well studied, and no controversy exists on the recommended norms for screening and follow-up. Rationale: This patient was in compliance with the USPSTF recommendations for her age group and risk factors prior to her current complaint. The USPSTF recommends that women age <50 years discuss risks and benefits with their provider and decide on appropriate screening for their individual preferences and needs. These recommendations are controversial and likely to change again over time, but they are underpinned by one key issue: Mammograms have low sensitivity and specificity in younger women with higher
  2. A 42-year-old female website developer presents for an annual preventive examination with questions about breast cancer screening. She is concerned about the radiation exposure associated with mammography and is interested in magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) as a possible alternative for routine screening. She is otherwise healthy with no family history of breast, ovarian, or colon cancer. Which of the following is true about MRI as a screening modality for breast cancer in the general population? a. Breast cancer screening by MRI has been well studied in the general population. b. Sensitivity of screening for breast cancer increases with breast MRI at the expense of specificity. c. This patient is an ideal candidate for screening via breast MRI based on current evidence d. Women at low lifetime risk of breast cancer (<20%) are recommended to undergo screening MRI. e. Known BRCA1 or BRCA2 mutation is insufficient criteria to justify screening with breast MRI. Rationale: Sensitivity of screening for breast cancer increases with breast MRI at the expense of specificity. Increased sensitivity (in this case, higher-resolution imaging to pick up subtler disease) is often traded for reduced specificity (in the form of discovering many small items of no pathological significance). This is a core concept in designing screening tests—very sensitive tests often pick up false positives, while very specific tests often rule out disease effectively by missing many actual cases. Balance must be sought between these two when setting thresholds for positive and negative screens. Breast cancer screening by MRI has been well studied in the general population is incorrect. This screening modality has only been studied in high- risk populations. This patient is an ideal candidate for screening via breast MRI based on current evidence is incorrect. This patient meets no known criteria for screening with breast MRI (known BRCA mutation, history of chest radiation, etc.). Women at low lifetime risk of breast cancer (<20%) are recommended to undergo screening MRI is incorrect. Only women at high lifetime risk (>20%) are current recommended to utilize breast MRI as a screening tool. Known BRCA1 or BRCA2 mutation is insufficient criteria to justify screening with breast MRI is incorrect. The BRCA1 or BRCA2 mutation confers a risk >20% of breast cancer over a lifetime, which is considered sufficient criteria for screening with MRI rather than mammogram.
  3. A 35-year-old G0P0 woman presents to clinic with a complaint of bilateral nipple discharge. This discharge started several weeks ago and has occurred at irregular intervals since that time. She does not complain of local tenderness, redness, fever, or any other systemic symptoms aside from slightly irregular periods over the last

few months. On examination, she is able to express a small amount of discharge, which is sent to the laboratory and found to be consistent with breast milk but without any signs of blood or pus. Screening laboratories are also sent, which reveal a normal blood count, metabolic panel, thyroid-stimulating hormone, and human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) level. Further laboratories are still pending. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? a. Mastitis b. Ductal carcinoma in situ c. Paget disease of the breast d. Occult pregnancy e. Prolactinoma Rationale: Prolactinomas are pituitary tumors that secrete prolactin, which causes the production of breast milk and can suppress menstruation. Mastitis is incorrect. Mastitis is a breast infection that is typically painful and characterized by a focal area of redness and tenderness in one breast. Ductal carcinoma in situ is incorrect. While nipple discharge should raise suspicion for breast cancer, in this case the discharge is neither bloody nor purulent, and it is notably bilateral. A prudent provider may still order a mammogram and/or ultrasound, but the answer is unlikely to be breast cancer. Paget disease of the breast is incorrect. This condition may present with nipple discharge, but it is usually bloody. Occult pregnancy is incorrect. This patient has a negative HCG test, which is the standard hormonal laboratory examination used to determine pregnancy in both urine and serum tests.

  1. A 22-year-old G0P0 undergraduate student presents to clinic after finding a breast mass on breast self- examination (BSE) at home. The mass is nontender without skin changes, erythema, or overlying swelling. She has heard that most breast cancers are found by patients themselves, and she is very concerned that she may have breast cancer. Which of the following is true about BSE and self-detection of breast cancer? a. Most masses that women find at home and bring to a provider’s attention turn out to be malignant. b. This patient is more likely to find a fibroadenoma than a cancer on self-examination. c. The most likely breast mass this patient is likely to find in herself is an abscess complicating underlying mastitis. d. Because of this patient’s age, breast masses should not be pursued with imaging and diagnosis because the risk of cancer is so low. e. BSE is universally recommended because of very high sensitivity and specificity for finding cancerous lesions. Rationale: This patient is more likely to find a fibroadenoma than a cancer on self-examination. In this patient’s age range (15–25 years), palpable masses are most likely to be benign fibroadenomas. Most masses that women find at home and bring to a provider’s attention turn out to be malignant is incorrect. About 11% of complaints of breast masses turn out to be malignant, leaving the vast majority (89%) noncancerous. The most likely breast mass this patient is likely to find in herself is an abscess complicating underlying mastitis is incorrect. This patient has neither the symptoms of mastitis (localized swelling/erythema/tenderness with generalized fever) nor the risk factors for this condition (pregnancy and/or breastfeeding), making mastitis a very unlikely diagnosis. Because of this patient’s age, breast masses should not be pursued with imaging and diagnosis because the risk of cancer is so low is incorrect. Though the risk of cancer in this patient is low, the consequence of missing a cancer diagnosis is quite high; for that reason, definitive diagnosis should be pursued for almost all breast masses. Because of this patient’s age, breast masses should not be pursued with imaging and diagnosis because the risk of cancer is so low is incorrect. BSE suffers from notoriously low sensitivity and specificity, making it a very controversial recommendation as it tends to overestimate disease in healthy breasts and miss cancer in breasts with subtle disease.
  2. A 48-year-old female psychologist presents to clinic with concerns about her breast cancer risk after an age- matched cousin was recently diagnosed with this disease. This cousin is the third family member on her father’s side in as many years to be diagnosed with breast cancer, including the patient’s own father, who had surgery and subsequent treatment 3 years ago for breast cancer. The patient has little other knowledge of her family history, only that her grandparents independently arrived from Eastern Europe near the end of World War II and

that of mammograms, but at the expense of double the false positives. No agency recommends breast MRI for a patient such as this one, who has moderately but not extraordinary risk factors for breast cancer is incorrect. This patient presents with an extraordinary risk profile, including strong family history of breast cancer (suggestive of BRCA linkage to disease but without clear diagnosis), history of chest radiation, and dense breasts requiring prior biopsies to rule out malignancy. She meets the American Cancer Society (ACS) criteria for annual breast MRI, though the USPSTF does not agree that the evidence exists to support this recommendation. The USPSTF recommends against screening with MRI for patients with such risk factors is incorrect. The USPSTF, recognizing the limited data available on this screening test, states that there is insufficient evidence to state one way or another whether this test is appropriate for high-risk patients. Mammograms are not affected by breast density and thus density is not a factor in choosing MRIs over mammograms in patients such as this individual is incorrect. Breast density is both a risk factor for breast cancer and a factor that hampers effective screening with mammograms; per the ACS, it may be criteria to screen by MRI. History of chest radiation is not a risk factor for breast cancer and is thus not relevant to deciding whether MRI is appropriate in this patient is incorrect. Chest radiation between the ages of 10 and 30 years confers high risk of later breast cancer; per the ACS, this risk is sufficient to warrant screening by MRI.

  1. A 66-year-old female museum curator presents for a routine annual examination. On examination, a notably enlarged supraclavicular lymph node is appreciated on the right side. The lymph node is nontender and feels firm and rubbery. She denies any localized or systemic symptoms such as breast lumps, fevers, or night sweats. She has been taking conjugated estrogen tablets for 9 years since menopause, though she has not taken progestin compounds since she had a hysterectomy for heavy bleeding at age 45 years. Which of the following is true about this presentation of lymphadenopathy? a. Breast cancer always presents with axillary lymphadenopathy because the lymphatics of the breast uniformly drain into the axilla. b. Supraclavicular nodes are generally considered benign and require no further evaluation or follow-up. c. Supraclavicular nodes are found along the anterior edge of the trapezius muscle in the neck. d. Firm, rubbery lymph nodes are generally considered to be benign. e. Metastatic breast cancer cells may spread directly into the infraclavicular and then supraclavicular nodes without first causing notable changes in the axillary nodes. Rationale: Metastatic breast cancer cells may spread directly into the infraclavicular and then supraclavicular nodes without first causing notable changes in the axillary nodes. Though axillary lymphadenopathy should be evaluated with age-appropriate imaging to rule out breast cancer, cells that are metastasizing from the breasts can pass directly to the infraclavicular, then supraclavicular nodes. Lack of axillary adenopathy should not be considered grounds to exclude a breast cancer diagnosis. Breast cancer always presents with axillary lymphadenopathy because the lymphatics of the breast uniformly drain into the axilla is incorrect for reasons noted above. Supraclavicular nodes are generally considered benign and require no further evaluation or follow- up is incorrect. Supraclavicular lymph nodes are uniformly considered malignant until proven otherwise. The differential diagnosis for these malignancies is wide but includes cancers of the breast, lung, head, and neck, esophagus, pancreas, etc. Supraclavicular nodes are found along the anterior edge of the trapezius muscle in the neck is incorrect. This describes the location of the posterior cervical chain of lymph nodes. Supraclavicular nodes are found deep in the angle formed by the clavicle and the sternocleidomastoid muscle. Firm, rubbery lymph nodes are generally considered to be benign is incorrect. Firm or fixed lymph nodes are of concern for malignancy; tender nodes suggest inflammation.
  2. A 24-year-old graphic designer presents to clinic with a concern for a breast mass. A rubbery, mobile, nontender mass is palpated in the right breast as described by the patient, which is consistent with a firbroadenoma. In describing the location of the mass, the examiner notes that it is 3 cm proximal to and 3 cm to the left of the nipple. Which of the following would be the most appropriate way to report this finding? a. “Rubbery, mobile, nontender mass located in right breast, in the 10:30 position from the nipple” b. “Rubbery, mobile, nontender mass located in right breast, in the lower outer quadrant” c. “Rubbery, mobile, nontender mass located in right breast, in the upper inner quadrant”

d. “Rubbery, mobile, nontender mass located in the left breast, upper outer quadrant” e. “Rubbery, mobile, nontender mass located in right breast, in the 1:30 position from the nipple” Rationale: Metastatic breast cancer cells may spread directly into the infraclavicular and then supraclavicular nodes without first causing notable changes in the axillary nodes. Though axillary lymphadenopathy should be evaluated with age-appropriate imaging to rule out breast cancer, cells that are metastasizing from the breasts can pass directly to the infraclavicular, then supraclavicular nodes. Lack of axillary adenopathy should not be considered grounds to exclude a breast cancer diagnosis. Breast cancer always presents with axillary lymphadenopathy because the lymphatics of the breast uniformly drain into the axilla is incorrect for reasons noted above. Supraclavicular nodes are generally considered benign and require no further evaluation or follow- up is incorrect. Supraclavicular lymph nodes are uniformly considered malignant until proven otherwise. The differential diagnosis for these malignancies is wide but includes cancers of the breast, lung, head, and neck, esophagus, pancreas, etc. Supraclavicular nodes are found along the anterior edge of the trapezius muscle in the neck is incorrect. This describes the location of the posterior cervical chain of lymph nodes. Supraclavicular nodes are found deep in the angle formed by the clavicle and the sternocleidomastoid muscle. Firm, rubbery lymph nodes are generally considered to be benign is incorrect. Firm or fixed lymph nodes are of concern for malignancy; tender nodes suggest inflammation.

  1. A 54-year-old female dietician presents for a routine annual examination. On review of systems, she reports that she has had many breast findings over several years, including one biopsy with normal pathology. She feels that her breasts have become far less lumpy since she underwent menopause 3 years ago. Which of the following is true regarding changes in the breasts with menopause? a. Transformation of breasts to primarily fatty tissue with menopause decreases the sensitivity and specificity of mammograms. b. Estrogen in hormone replacement therapy (HRT) has no effect on breast density after menopause. c. Glandular tissue of the breast atrophies with menopause, primarily due to decrease in the number of lobules. d. Breast density has no genetic component and is entirely due to estrogen dose from endogenous and exogenous sources over the lifetime. e. Mammography performs most poorly in the menopausal and postmenopausal age group and should be limited for that reason. Rationale: Glandular tissue of the breast atrophies with menopause, primarily due to a decrease in the number of lobules. The consequent decrease in breast density makes mammograms ever more useful during the age when breast cancer incidence starts to rise markedly. This concept underpins many controversies in breast cancer screening: Prior to menopause, dense breasts obscure, underestimate, and overestimate disease in a lower- prevalence population; after menopause, less-dense breasts increase the utility of mammography in a higher- prevalence population. This has lead a number of agencies to recommend against frequent screening of women in their 40s because of high rates of false positives. Transformation of breasts to primarily fatty tissue with menopause decreases the sensitivity and specificity of mammograms is incorrect. As above, the reverse is true: The transformation to primarily fatty tissue with menopause increases the utility of mammograms. Estrogen in HRT has no effect on breast density after menopause is incorrect. Though the exact role of estrogen from exogenous sources is unclear, estrogen from HRT likely plays a role in maintaining dense breasts past menopause and contributing to breast cancer risk. Breast density has no genetic component and is entirely due to estrogen dose from endogenous and exogenous sources over the lifetime is incorrect. Breast density is affected by a number of factors, among which is a genetic contribution. Mammography performs most poorly in the menopausal and postmenopausal age group and should be limited for that reason is incorrect. Mammography performs most accurately in menopausal and postmenopausal women and should be primarily used in that group. Chapter 19: Abdomen

a. Female gender b. History of smoking c. Underweight d. Family history of ruptured aneurysm e. Hypertension Rationale: History of smoking is her most significant risk factor for an AAA. Male gender, not female gender, is considered as risk factor. Underweight is not a risk factor for AAA. Family history of ruptured aneurysm is vague and could be a cerebral aneurysm. Further, her family history is in a first-degree cousin not a first-degree relative (biologic parents, siblings, and children). Hypertension could contribute to atherosclerosis, which is a risk factor. Further, a diagnosis of hypertension is not based on one elevated blood pressure reading.

  1. A 76-year-old retired man with a history of prostate cancer and hypertension has been screened annually for colon cancer using high sensitivity fecal occult blood testing (FOBT). He presents for follow-up of his hypertension, during which the clinician scans his chart to ensure he is up to date with his preventive health care. He has a positive FOBT on one occasion at age 66 years and subsequently went for a colonoscopy. Internal hemorrhoids and sigmoid diverticuli were found on colonoscopy. He has no first-degree relatives with a history of colorectal cancer or adenomatous polyps. What are the U.S. Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF) screening recommendations for this patient? a. Do not screen routinely b. Continue annual FOBT screening until age 80 years c. Continue annual FOBT screening until age 85 years d. Repeat colonoscopy this year e. Sigmoidoscopy every 5 years with FOBT every 3 years Rationale: The USPSTF recommends not screening routinely. For most adults ages 76–85 years, the gain in life years is small compared to colonoscopy risks. It is advised to discuss individualized risks and benefits with the patient. Annual FOBT screening may continue until age 80–85 years if benefits to doing so outweigh risks for the individual patient; however, screening should not be routinely continued. In general, a life expectancy > years is necessary for screening to be potentially beneficial. There is no indication to repeat a colonoscopy given the absence of any cancerous or precancerous findings on his colonoscopy 10 years ago. Sigmoidoscopy every 5 years with FOBT every 3 years is a valid screening option, but again screening is not routinely recommended for patients age >75 years.
  2. An otherwise healthy 31-year-old accountant presents to an outpatient clinic with a 3-year history of recurrent crampy abdominal pain that lasts for about 1–2 weeks each episode and is associated with onset of constipation. She describes infrequent, small hard stool that she finds very difficult to pass. She has tried to increase dietary fiber and water intake, but usually this is not sufficient and she resorts to over-the-counter laxatives, which she finds upset her stomach but do resolve the constipation. Symptoms typically gradually resolve with bowel movements. Which of the following is the most likely physiological mechanism for her constipation? A. A large, firm fecal mass in the rectum

b. Decreased fecal bulk c. Functional change in bowel movement d. Spasm of the external sphincter e. Impairment of autonomic innervations Rationale: Functional change in bowel movement is characteristic of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). IBS is characterized by three patterns: diarrhea predominant, constipation predominant, or mixed. Other functional causes for her constipation should be excluded prior to making this diagnosis. A large firm fecal mass in the rectum is characteristic of fecal impaction, which is common in debilitated, bedridden individuals. Decreased fecal bulk is characteristic of a diet low in fiber. This patient had not found that increasing fiber helps her constipation. Spasm of the external sphincter is associated with painful anal lesions, which this patient does not report. Impairment of autonomic innervations is characteristic of patients with multiple sclerosis, spinal cord injuries, and Hirschsprung disease. She has no known diagnosis that would increase suspicion of neurological impairment.

  1. A 23-year-old woman comes to the respirology clinic for follow-up of her chronic sinusitis and bronchiectasis that is associated with a rare congenital condition called Kartagener syndrome. The preceptor notes that she has situs inversus and asks for a physical exam. Which of the following descriptions best fits with findings on the abdominal exam? a. Tympany to percussion in the right upper quadrant, dullness to percussion of the left upper quadrant b. Protuberant abdomen that has scattered areas of tympany and dullness; stool is felt on palpation c. Liver dullness in the right upper quadrant that is displaced downward by the low diaphragm due to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease d. Dullness to percussion of the left lower anterior chest wall roughly at the anterior axillary line e. A change in percussion from tympany to dullness in the left lower anterior chest wall on inspiration Rationale: Situs inversus is a rare condition in which organs are reversed and is associated with Kartagener syndrome. Thus, the stomach and gastric air bubble are on the right and liver dullness is on the left. A protuberant abdomen with scattered areas of dullness and tympany and stool on palpation is likely constipation. None of these findings suggest organ reversal. Liver dullness will occur in the left upper quadrant with organ reversal. Findings given in the remaining answer choices are both associated with splenomegaly with the spleen located in the left upper quadrant, which would not be the case for sinus inversus totalis.
  2. An otherwise healthy 28-year-old lawyer presents to the Emergency Department with a 1-day history of severe abdominal pain. The emergency physician suspects appendicitis and general surgery is consulted. The resident believes the patient has signs of peritonitis on exam. Which of the following physical exam findings supports peritonitis? a. Voluntary contraction of the abdominal wall that persists over several examinations b. Pressing down onto the abdomen firmly and slowly and withdrawing the hand quickly produces pain c. Abdominal pain that increases with hip flexion d. Localized pain over McBurney point, which lies 2 inches from the anterior superior iliac spinous process on a line drawn from the umbilicus e. Pain with internal rotation of the right hip
  1. A 67-year-old electronics technician with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes presents for his yearly physical examination and complains of progressively worsening erectile dysfunction (ED). While counseling him, the clinician mentions that multiple processes must take place to achieve an erection. Which of the following structures would be most affected by vascular deficiencies related to his preexisting medical conditions and is likely contributing to his symptoms? a. Corpora cavernosa b. Ejaculatory duct c. Epididymis d. Seminal vesicle e. Vas deferens Rationale: The corpora cavernosa are two structures within the shaft of the penis that become engorged with venous blood during erection. Patients with a history of cardiovascular disease such as hypertension and other diseases, such as diabetes, that cause limitations of blood flow are common causes of ED. Ejaculatory duct is incorrect. It is a conduit for seminal fluid from the seminal vesicle and terminal vas deferens to the urethra and is not involved in the process of an erection. Epididymis is incorrect. It is a structure on top of each of the testicles that provides a reservoir for storage, saturation, and transport of sperm from the testes and is also not involved in the process of an erection. Seminal vesicle is incorrect. It produces secretions that contribute to the seminal fluid and is also not involved in the process of an erection. Vas deferens is incorrect. It is a cord-like structure that transports sperm from the tail of the epididymis to the urethra and also is not involved in the process of an erection.
  2. A 29-year-old graduate student states that he is able to achieve an erection and ejaculate during sexual intercourse; however, he does not experience any pleasurable sensation of orgasm. He is otherwise healthy and is not on any medications. What is the most likely cause of his problem? a. Androgen insufficiency b. Endocrine dysfunction c. Peyronie disease d. Psychogenic e. Sexually transmitted infection (STI) Rationale: Lack of orgasm with ejaculation is usually not a physiological or structural issue, rather psychogenic in nature. It is fairly uncommon but does occur, and clinicians should be aware of the problem and take a thorough history to ascertain the roots of this disorder. Androgen insufficiency is incorrect as it is more likely to cause a decrease in libido and problems with erectile dysfunction (ED) rather than lack of orgasm. Endocrine dysfunction is incorrect as it may also cause ED and decreased libido as well as reduced or absent ejaculation among others; however, it should not cause the symptoms described above. Peyronie disease is incorrect as it is the development of fibrous scar tissue within the penis that causes disfigured and painful erections. STI is incorrect. STIs can cause a constellation of symptoms such as urethral discharge, fever, and pain to name a few; however, they should not cause the symptoms described above.
  3. Multiple processes must take place in order for a male to sustain an erection. Various cues stimulate sympathetic outflow from higher brain centers to the T11–L2 levels of the spinal cord and parasympathetic outflow from S2 to S4 reflex arcs. Local vasodilatation within the penis erectile tissue results from increased levels of which of the following? a. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) b. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GRH) c. Luteinizing hormone (LH) d. Nitric oxide (NO) and cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP) e. Testosterone Rationale: NO and cGMP are powerful vasodilators that are crucial in the process of an erection. Both allow venous blood to accumulate within the corpora cavernosa and corpus spongiosum making the penis rigid. FSH is incorrect as it is secreted from the pituitary and regulate sperm production in the testes. GRH is incorrect as it

is secreted from the hypothalamus and stimulates pituitary secretion of LH and FSH. LH is incorrect as it is secreted from the pituitary gland and stimulates the synthesis of testosterone. Testosterone is incorrect as it is synthesized by Leydig cells in the testes and is responsible for multiple other processes such as pubertal growth of male genitalia, secondary sex characteristics, and muscular growth, to name a few.

  1. The human papillomavirus (HPV) can cause genital warts in males and females as well as cervical cancer in females. Vaccination against HPV is available and should be offered to males between what ages? a. 6–9 months b. 1–3 years c. 5–7 years d. 9–21 years e. 30–50 years Rationale: The current recommendation for HPV vaccination for males starts at age 9 years and continues until age 26 years when males are most likely to be exposed to the virus. HPV can cause genital warts in both males and females, cervical cancer in females, and has also been linked to other types of cancers such as oropharyngeal cancers. Current literature suggests that age groups other than 9–21 years do not have any significant benefit or need for the HPV vaccination.
  2. A 32-year-old male complains of a painless, cystic mass just above his left testicle. During the physical examination, a strong flashlight is placed behind the scrotum through the area in question and transillumination is noted. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Direct hernia b. Indirect hernia c. Spermatocele d. Testicular tumor e. Varicocele Rationale: A spermatocele is a benign, typically painless, movable cystic mass just above the testis that will typically transilluminate with a strong light source. Direct hernia and indirect hernia are incorrect as they will typically contain abdominal contents such as bowel that do not transilluminate. A direct hernia does not produce a mass in the scrotum. Testicular tumor is incorrect. A testicular tumor is a solid mass that will not transilluminate. A varicocele is incorrect as it is a dilatation or varicosities of veins of the spermatic cord that are filled with blood and therefore will not transilluminate.
  3. A 25-year-old graduate student presents to the clinic complaining of scrotal pain, which has been increasing over the past 2 days. He is sexually active and has had unprotected intercourse with multiple partners in the past couple of weeks. On examination, some mild to moderate swelling of the scrotum on the right and tenderness with palpation of the right testicle are notes. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Acute epididymitis b. Hydrocele c. Primary syphilis d. Spermatocele e. Testicular cancer Rationale: Acute epididymitis typically results from a bacterial infection such as chlamydia and presents with scrotal swelling and pain. Given this patient’s history of recent unprotected sexual intercourse with multiple partners, he is at higher risk of sexually transmitted infections (STIs). Hydrocele is incorrect as it is a nontender, fluid filled mass within the tunica vaginalis surrounding the testicle. Hydroceles are usually a congenital defect in which peritoneal fluid travels down in between the testicle and tunica vaginalis from a patent communication that normally closes. Primary syphilis is incorrect as it is typically presents as a small red papule that becomes a

a. Early withdrawal b. Male condoms c. Spermicides d. Diaphragms e. Cervical caps Rationale: The correct use of male condoms is highly effective in preventing the transmission of multiple sexually transmitted infections including HIV, human papillomavirus, chlamydia, gonorrhea, and others. Key instructions should include using a new condom with each sex act, applying the condom before any sexual contact occurs, adding only water-based lubricants, and holding the condom during withdrawal to keep it from slipping off. Although, the most effective way to prevent STIs is abstinence, for the individuals who choose to have an active sexual life, proper usage of condom provides the best protection against most STIs. Early withdrawal, spermicides, diaphragms, and cervical caps are incorrect as they do not provide any significant barriers to prevent the transmission of most STIs. Prolonged use of spermicides may cause localized erosions of genital tissue, which may increase risk of STIs.

  1. A 21-year-old college student presents to the student health clinic for a full physical examination. He is generally healthy; however, he reports that he has had sexual intercourse with multiple partners in the past couple of months. He noticed a small lesion on the shaft of his penis a few days ago. While performing the examination, he unwillingly achieves an erection. How should the clinician proceed at this point? a. Stop the examination immediately. b. Have him return to see another provider. c. Explain this is a normal response and finish the examination. d. Tell him the examination cannot proceed until the erection subsides. e. Assume that he is malingering. Rationale: Explain that erection is a normal response. When performing an examination on the male genitalia, it is important to explain each step of the examination so that the patient knows what to expect. Having an assistant in the room is appropriate for both male and female providers. If the patient refuses to be examined, his wishes should be respected. Stop the examination immediately is incorrect and would be inappropriate without any explanation or further examination. Given his report of a lesion and history of multiple sexual partners, this patient requires a thorough examination and having him return to see another provider at a later time is incorrect and may lead to further morbidity if a sexually transmitted infection is not recognized and treated promptly. Tell him the examination cannot proceed until the erection subsides is incorrect. It is not necessary if the patient is willing to continue. Assume that he is malingering is incorrect based on his reported history. Again, it is important to have an escort in the room if there is any question. Chapter 21: Female Genitalia
  2. A 45-year-old driver’s education instructor presents to the clinic for heavy periods and pelvic pain during her menses. She reached menarche at age 13 years and has had regular periods except during her pregnancies. She is a G4P3013 and does not use birth control as her husband has had a vasectomy. She states this has been going on for about a year but seems to be getting worse. Her last period was 1 week ago. On bimanual exam, a large midline mass halfway to the umbilicus is palpated. Each adnexal area is nonpalpable. Her rectal exam is normal. Her body mass index (BMI) is 27. What is the best explanation for her physical finding? a. Large colonic stool b. Ovarian mass c. Fibroids d. 4-Month pregnancy e. Bartholin gland enlargement

Rationale: Fibroids, also known as myomas, are very common benign uterine tumors that can become quite enlarged. Large colonic stool is incorrect. Stool cannot be easily palpated in the abdomen except in a very thin person. Ovarian mass is incorrect. The mass palpated is in the midline and ovarian masses will generally be in the adnexal area. In this case, the adnexal area had no palpable mass. Four-month pregnancy is incorrect. This patient’s husband has had a vasectomy, and this patient had menses last week. Bartholin gland enlargement is incorrect. An enlarged Bartholin gland is noted in the labial area and not in the abdomen.

  1. A 32-year-old G0 woman comes for evaluation on why she and her husband have been unable to get pregnant. Her husband has been married before and has two other children, ages 7 and 4 years. The patient relates she began her periods at age 12 and has been fairly regular ever since. She began oral contraceptive pills from when she got married until last year, when she began to try for a pregnancy. Before this she had regular cycles for 10 years. She has had a history of five prior partners. She relates she was once treated for a severe genital infection when she was in college. Based on this patient’s history, what is the best explanation for her infertility? a. Prior pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) b. Prior Bartholin gland infection c. Prior herpes infection d. Metabolic disorder with subsequent hormonal irregularities leading to anovulation e. Secondary amenorrhea Rationale: PID is a genital infection caused by gonorrhea, chlamydia, and other organisms. If not treated early enough it can lead to tubal pregnancies or infertility. Prior Bartholin gland infection is incorrect. Although Bartholin cyst infections can be from sexually transmitted infections, they are only located on the labia and do not lead to fertility issues. Prior herpes infection is incorrect. Herpes generally only affects the labial tissues, vagina, and cervix. Although a baby delivered through an outbreak can suffer complications from maternal herpes, it does not affect fertility. Metabolic disorder with subsequent hormonal irregularities leading to anovulation is incorrect. Although metabolic disorder does lead to anovulation and infertility problems, this patient relates being regular all of her life so most likely has no hormonal abnormalities. Secondary amenorrhea is incorrect. Secondary amenorrhea occurs when a woman having periods stops having them for some reason. This woman has not had an absence of her menses
  2. A 24-year-old retail clerk presents to the clinic for an annual exam. Her last Pap was 3 years ago and was normal. She is a G0 and is currently not sexually active although she has had two lifetime partners. She is on oral contraceptive pills for cycle control and has no medical problems. Based on guidelines, the clinician proceeds to perform a Pap smear and places the speculum. There are two layers of cells, squamous and columnar. Where is the most important area to obtain cells for a Pap smear? a. Zona reticularis b. Transformation zone c. Squamous zone d. Columnar zone e. Linea nigra Rationale: The transformation zone is where cancerous cells are most likely to develop and is thus the most important area to sample in a Pap test. Zona reticularis is incorrect. This is actually a part of the adrenal glands that produces hormones. Squamous zone and columnar zone are incorrect. Although each of these can be affected by the human papillomavirus, the transformation zone where these two meet (and columnar cells become squamous cells) is the area of most pathological activity and thus the area that is most important to sample during a Pap smear. Linea nigra is incorrect. The linea nigra is actually the pigmented line often seen in the midline with pregnant women.

b. She has only one current partner and does not need STI testing c. She had a normal Pap smear within the last 3 years. d. She should not be sexually active. e. She has been using condoms. Rationale: For best results with either a Pap smear or STI testing it is best to not have the patient menstruating. On conventional Pap smears, blood masks the cytology. For STI testing, the vaginal sample results are not always valid. Some practices do use urine STI testing but this is not yet universally available. She has only one current partner and does not need STI testing is incorrect. Until the age of 25 years, high-risk individuals with a history of several partners are still tested yearly. She had a normal Pap smear within the last 3 years is incorrect. Although she does not need a Pap smear at this time, she still needs STI testing. She should not be sexually active is incorrect. This is a personal judgment of the provider and should not be involved in decision making for the patient’s care. She has been using condoms is incorrect. As long as a patient has not used a condom for the last 48 hours, there is no need to postpone a speculum exam due to general condom usage.

  1. An 18-year-old high school senior presents to the clinic complaining of a vaginal discharge. She states that it is thick and yellow and that she has had some recent pelvic pain. She is sexually active and is not using any type of birth control or sexually transmitted infection (STI) prevention. She denies any burning with urination, nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea. She has had some fever and chills with a temperature up to 101.5oF. Her last menstrual period was last week. After a physical exam, she is diagnosed with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). Visualization of purulent discharge in which of the following areas would best support a diagnosis of PID? a. Cervical os b. Posterior fornix c. Anterior fornix d. Skene gland opening e. Bartholin gland opening Rationale: An infection in the uterus, tubes, and ovaries would drain through the cervix and out of the os. Posterior fornix is incorrect. Any discharge in the fornix may be from the cervix, or it may be from a vaginal infection. Anterior fornix is incorrect. Again any discharge in the fornix may be from the cervix, or it could be from a vaginal infection. Skene gland opening is incorrect. This gland is within the labia minor and surrounds the urethral opening. Discharge from PID comes from the uterus so would be coming from the os within the introitus. Bartholin gland opening is incorrect. This opening is just within the introitus near the 4 and 8 o’clock positions of the labia minora. Discharge from PID would be from the os within the introitus and not from just inside the introitus.
  2. A 27-year-old G0 bus driver presents to the clinic complaining of an itchy vaginal discharge for the last week. She reached menarche at age 12 years, became sexually active at age 18 years, and has had a total of five sexual partners. She has been with her current partner for 1 month. She is on oral contraceptive pills and does not use condoms as she is allergic to latex. Her last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago. She is not having any pelvic pain, fever, nausea, or vomiting. Her vitals are normal with a body mass index of 22. The clinician places the metal medium Graves speculum in the vagina but cannot find the cervix. What is the best next maneuver to visualize the cervix? a. Replace the speculum with a larger one (large Graves). b. Withdraw the speculum and do a bimanual exam to find the cervix. c. Withdraw the speculum slightly and reposition it on a different slope

d. Replace the speculum with a plastic one with a better light source. e. Discontinue the speculum exam and treat empirically. Rationale: The first maneuver when the cervix is not easily within view is to switch the angle of how the speculum is being inserted. Replace the speculum with a larger one (large Graves) is incorrect. In some patients, this could be done after repositioning the original speculum. In this patient, a thin G0, a larger speculum would not be helpful. Withdraw the speculum and do a bimanual exam to find the cervix is incorrect. Although this can be helpful to find a cervix, it is not the next maneuver that would be done. Replace the speculum with a plastic one with a better light source is incorrect. Although this can also be done as a later maneuver it is not the next one done to visualize the cervix. Discontinue the speculum exam and treat empirically is incorrect. The clinician would not stop trying to visualize the cervix after one failed attempt. In this case, also it is unknown if this discharge is bacterial vaginosis, Trichomonas, a yeast infection, or some other sexually transmitted infection.

  1. A 63-year-old office worker comes to the clinic for her women’s health exam. Her last Pap smear was 5 years ago and was normal. She is married and has been with the same sexual partner for the last 35 years. After performing the majority of the exam, the clinician decides to do a speculum exam to collect cytology for Pap smear. What is the correct position to have the patient in for her speculum exam? a. Sitting b. Supine c. Prone d. Trendelenburg e. Lithotomy Rationale: Lithotomy or dorsal lithotomy position describes a patient lying on an exam table supine but with the legs abducted with the feet in the stirrups. This was named lithotomy because it is how doctors used to access the urethra in both men and women to be able to remove stones with instruments. This is the easiest position to visualize the cervix and do the bimanual exam. Sitting is incorrect. Obviously the vagina and perineum cannot be accessed in the sitting position. Supine is incorrect. A purely supine position lying on the back with the legs adducted closed would provide no exposure to the female genitalia. Prone is incorrect. In the prone position, the patient is laying on the stomach, and the genitalia are not accessible. Trendelenburg is incorrect. In the Trendelenburg position, the patient is supine and the legs are elevated higher than the level of the head. A reverse Trendelenburg has the patient supine with the head higher than the level of the feet.
  2. A 68-year-old retired patient presents to the clinic complaining about feeling like something is falling out of her vagina. She is a G6P6007 and had all her children vaginally, even the twins. She went through menopause at age 55 years, and, for the last few months, she has felt this falling sensation. On exam, an anterior bulge in the vaginal wall is apparent when she bears down. Weakness in which muscle would best account for the anterior bulge in the vaginal wall? a. Levatori ani b. Anal sphincter c. Pubis symphysis d. Ischiocavernosus muscle e. Bulbocavernosus muscle

a. Sacrum b. Pectinate line c. Uterine fundus d. Prostat e. Cervix

  1. A 45-year-old female executive reports to her primary care provider that she has recently experienced a change in the patterns of her bowel movements. She expresses a great concern as her family history includes a maternal aunt who died of colon cancer at age 49 years; her mother has had colonoscopies every 3 years with numerous adenomatous polyps removed. Which of the following historical elements would be the most concerning for colon cancer in this patient? a. Long-term history of hemorrhoids b. Recent history of black, tarry stools c. Remote history of anal pruritus d. New-onset anal fissure e. Recent onset of small-caliber stools
  2. A 49-year-old customer service representative presents to his gastroenterologist for follow-up of his long- standing inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). He was diagnosed with ulcerative colitis (UC) at age 37 years and has had irregular care for this condition since then. His sole colonoscopy was done at the time of diagnosis 12 years ago. His only relevant family history is of prostate cancer in his father; his mother and sisters are healthy. Which of the following is true about recommended screening for colon cancer in this patient? a. The patient should begin screening for colon cancer 10 years prior to the age of onset of his father’s prostate cancer. b. The patient should undergo colonoscopy for his bowel condition, which confers risk of colon cancer. c. The patient is due for routine age-based colon cancer screening by colonoscopy regardless of his risk factors. d. The patient has a reassuring family history and thus needs no colon cancer screening until at least age 60 years. e. The patient’s condition puts him at a high risk of bowel perforation during colonoscopy, thus colon cancer screening should be deferred indefinitely.
  3. A 49-year-old male with well-controlled HIV undergoes a proctoscopic examination as routine screening for anal cancer. The patient is asymptomatic and specifically denies complaints of frequent urination (frequency), large volume of urination (polyuria), or repeated urination at night (nocturia). Under direct visualization, the clinician observes a clear, circumferential demarcation of proximal versus distal tissue. This demarcation was not palpable on digital rectal examination (DRE) prior to proctoscopy. What is the most likely origin of this finding? a. Pathological constriction of the anal canal b. Normal anatomy of the mucosal surface c. Carcinoma d. Valve of Houston e. External anal sphincter
  4. A 34-year-old female reports anal pain with defecation. She notes incidentally to this complaint that she has developed episodic abdominal discomfort and sores in her mouth. Anoscopic examination reveals anal fissures that appear to be her source of pain. Which of the following underlying conditions is the clinician most likely to find? a. Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) b. Lymphogranuloma venereu c. Human papillomavirus (HPV) d. Gonorrhea cervicitis e. Primary syphilis
  1. A 53-year-old African American advertising agent presents for discussion of his prostate cancer risk and possible screening for this disease. His father was diagnosed at age 82 years with prostate cancer but died recently at age 87 years from a myocardial infarction before the disease progressed. Family history also reveals that his mother died of ovarian cancer when he was age 10 years, and two of his maternal aunts had breast cancer. Which of the following is true about risk and screening for prostate cancer? a. The incidence of prostate cancer does not rise until age >65 years, thus this patient needs no screening at this time. b. Prostate cancer is always an aggressive neoplasm, thus the risks of overdiagnosis with screening is outweighed by the benefits of early case-finding. c. This patient is at an elevated risk of prostate cancer due to his family history, thus screening modalities should be discussed between the patient and provider. d. This patient’s race is a protective factor for prostate cancer, thus reassurance is the only intervention necessary. e. The patient’s family history in the female line is irrelevant to his own risks and can be safely ignored in discussion of his risk for prostate cancer.
  2. A 64-year-old retired architect presents to his primary care provider with a magazine article about prostate cancer screening that states, “You should talk to your doctor about the ups and downs of prostate cancer screening.” The patient hands this to the clinician and states, “Tell me about the ups and down of prostate screening.” Which of the following is true about prostate cancer screening? a. Regardless of sensitivity and specificity of testing modalities, screening for prostate cancer should always be ordered due to the malignant nature of the disease. b. The prostate-specific antigen (PSA) effectively differentiates aggressively malignant prostate tumors from indolent cases. c. The prostate-specific antigen (PSA) cut-off of 4.0 ng/ml is virtually 100% specific for aggressive prostate cancer. d. Setting normal cut-offs for prostate-specific antigen (PSA) testing relies on balancing the risk of overdiagnosis with the risk of underdiagnosis. e. Most prostate cancers are palpable and symptomatic by the time they are biopsied, reducing the need for screening as patients can report symptoms. Chapter23: Musculoskeletal System
  3. A thin, 58-year-old patient complains of lower back pain for years. On examination, the clinician finds that the patient has tenderness over the sacroiliac area. Which of the following conditions is most consistent with this physical sign? a. Osteoporosis b. Ankylosing spondylitis c. Malignancy d. Infection e. Torticollis Rationale: Tenderness over the sacroiliac joint is common in sacroilitis and also seen in ankylosing spondylitis. Osteoporosis is incorrect; osteoporosis may be associated with pain on percussion of the spine. Malignancy is incorrect; malignancy may be associated with pain on percussion of the spine. Infection is incorrect; infection