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NCLEX-RN Exam Pack Set 2 (75 Questions &
Answers, Latest Update 2025)
1. 1. Question
A nurse was instructed by a physician to give clarithromycin (Biaxin) for a child whose BSA is 0.55 m2. The usual adult dose is 500 mg. Biaxin is available in an oral suspension. The 100ml bottle is labeled 50 mg/ml. How many ml would the nurse give per dose? Fill in the blanks. Record your answer using one decimal place. o Answer: Correct answer: (3.2) mL. o 3.2 mL. Formula: BS A Formula: BSA Formula: Rationale: o Use the BSA formula first then the standard formula as shown above. o To get the child’s dose, multiply 0.55m2(child’s BSA) to 500 mg (usual adult dose) to get 275. o Divide 275 with 1.7 m2to get 161.76 mg. o Use the standard formula above. o Divide 161.76 mg (desired pedia dose) with 50 mg (drug on hand) and multiply by 1 ml (vehicle) to get 3.2 ml.
Computation:
- Question A 28-year-old male has been found wandering around in a confusing pattern. The male is sweaty and pale. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed first? o A. Blood sugar check o B. CT scan o C. Blood cultures o D. Arterial blood gases Correct Answer: A. Blood sugar check With a history of diabetes, the first response should be to check blood sugar levels. o Option B: Performing a CT scan at this stage of assessment is unnecessary. A computerized tomography (CT) scan combines a series of X-ray images taken from different angles around the body and uses computer processing to create cross- sectional images (slices) of the bones, blood vessels, and soft tissues inside the body. CT scan images provide more detailed information than plain X-rays do. o Option C: A blood culture test helps the doctor figure out if the client has a kind of infection that is in the bloodstream and can affect the entire body. Doctors call this a systemic infection. The test checks a sample of the blood for bacteria or yeast that might be causing the infection. o Option D: An arterial blood gas (ABG) test measures oxygen and carbon dioxide levels in the blood. It also measures the body’s acid-base (pH) level, which is usually in balance when healthy.
Option A: Ingestion of a chemical is an emergency and should not be de Option B: Taking the client to the ER may be correct, however, they will s Option D: It should not be given to someone who swallowed chemicals Correct Answer: C. Contact the Poison Control Center quickly. The poison control center will have an exact plan of action for this child. o Option A: Intramuscular injections given at the dorsogluteal and ventro Correct Answer: C. Vastus lateralis Medications are injected into the bulkiest part of the vastus lateralis thigh muscle, w
- Question A nurse is administering a shot of Vitamin K to a 30 day-old infant. Which of the following target areas is the most appropriate? o A. Gluteus maximus o B. Gluteus minimus o C. Vastus lateralis o D. Vastus medialis
Option A: Contacting the provider is unnecessary and may take time. A p Option B: The child may have not yet developed his writing abilities. Some Option C: Asking a coworker would be inappropriate and against the pat Correct Answer: D. Ask the father who is in the room the child’s name. In this case, you can determine the name of the child by the father’s statement. You
- Question A nurse has just started her rounds delivering medication. A new patient on her rounds is a 4-year-old boy who is non- verbal. This child does not have any identification on. What should the nurse do? o A. Contact the provider o B. Ask the child to write their name on paper o C. Ask a coworker about the identification of the child o D. Ask the father who is in the room the child’s name
- Question A patient is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of primary hyperparathyroidism. A nurse checking the patient’s lab results would expect which of the following changes in laboratory findings? o Option B: Never give an IM injection in the gluteal muscles to avoid the risk of sciatica nerve damage. o Option D: The vastus medialis muscle is a part of
diet advice. Which of the following diet modifications is not recommended? o A. A diet high in grains
Option A: A well-balanced diet is the best way to keep the body healthy a Option B: High-calorie comfort food reduces symptoms of neuroglycopen Option C: Healthy fats and high-quality proteins slow the blood sugar rol Correct Answer: D. A restricted sodium diet A patient with Addison’s disease requires normal dietary sodium to prevent excess o B. A diet with adequate caloric intake o C. A high protein diet o D. A restricted sodium diet
- Question A patient with a history of diabetes mellitus is on the second postoperative day following cholecystectomy. She has complained of nausea and isn’t able to eat solid foods. The nurse enters the room to find the patient confused and shaky. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the patient’s symptoms? o A. Anesthesia reaction o B. Hyperglycemia o C. Hypoglycemia o D. Diabetic ketoacidosis
o D. Diverticulitis
Correct Answer: A. Bowel perforation Bowel perforation is the most serious complication of fiberoptic colonoscopy. Important signs include progressive abdominal pain, fever, chills, and tachycardia, which indicate advancing peritonitis. One of the most serious complications of colonoscopy is endoscopic perforation of the colon, which has been reported as between 0.03% and 0.7%. Although colonoscopic perforation (CP) occurs rarely, it can be associated with high mortality and morbidity rates. o Option B: Viral gastroenteritis is a known cause of nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, anorexia, weight loss, and dehydration. Isolated cases can occur, but viral gastroenteritis more commonly occurs in outbreaks within close communities such as daycare centers, nursing facilities, and cruise ships. Many different viruses can lead to symptomatology, though in routine clinical practice the true causative virus is generally not identified. o Option C: If the patient is age 50 or older and at average risk of colon cancer — he has no colon cancer risk factors other than age — the doctor may recommend a colonoscopy every 10 years or sometimes sooner to screen for colon cancer. Colonoscopy is one option for colon cancer screening. o Option D: Diverticulitis may cause pain, fever, and chills, but is far less serious than perforation and peritonitis.
- Question A nurse is assessing a clinic patient with a diagnosis of hepatitis A. Which of the following is the most likely route of transmission? o A. Sexual contact with an infected partner o B. Contaminated food o C. Blood transfusion
Correct Answer: A. A history of hepatitis C five years previously Hepatitis C is a viral infection transmitted through bodily Option A: Hepatitis B infection, caused by the hepatitis B virus (HBV), is c Option C: Before widespread screening of the blood supply in 1992, he Option D: Today, most people become infected with hepatitis B, C, or D Hepatitis A is the only type that is transmitted by the fecal-oral route through con
- Question A leukemia patient has a relative who wants to donate blood for transfusion. Which of the following donor medical conditions would prevent this? o A. A history of hepatitis C five years previously o B. Cholecystitis requiring cholecystectomy one year previously o C. Asymptomatic diverticulosis o D. Crohn's disease in remission
Option B: Cholecystitis is the inflammation of the gallbladder. This cond Option C: Diverticulosis is when pockets called diverticula form in the wa Option D: Crohn’s disease is an inflammatory bowel disease. It causes i hepatitis C may not donate blood for transfusion due to the high risk of infection o Option B: Calcium carbonate is used as an antacid for the relief of ind Correct Answer: A. Naproxen sodium (Naprosyn) Naproxen sodium is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug that can cause inflamm
- Question A physician has diagnosed acute gastritis in a clinic patient. Which of the following medications would be contraindicated for this patient? o A. Naproxen sodium (Naprosyn) o B. Calcium carbonate o C. Clarithromycin (Biaxin) o D. Furosemide (Lasix)
o D. The patient should limit fatty foods.
Correct Answer: D. Air hunger Patients with pulmonary edema experience air hunger, anxiety, and agitation. Symptoms may also include coughing Correct Answer: D. The patient should limit fatty foods. Cholecystitis, inflammation of the gallbladder, is most commonly caused by the presence of gallstones, which may block bile (necessary for fat absorption) from entering the intestines. Patients should decrease dietary fat by limiting foods like fatty meats, fried foods, and creamy desserts to avoid irritation of the gallbladder. o Option A: The patient may maintain a moderate to a high-calorie diet, as a very low-calorie diet may increase the risk for gallstones that predisposes to cholecystitis. o Option B: Both animal fat and animal protein may contribute to the formation of gallstones. Vitamin C, which is abundant in plants and absent from meat affects the rate-limiting step in the catabolism of cholesterol to bile acids and is inversely related to the risk of gallstones and cholecystitis. Individuals consuming the most refined carbohydrates have a 60% greater risk for developing gallstones, compared with those who consumed the least. o Option C: Replacing sugary drinks with drinks high in fiber would reduce the risk of gallbladder stones by 15%.
- Question A patient admitted to the hospital with myocardial infarction develops severe pulmonary edema. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse expect the patient to exhibit? o A. Slow, deep respirations o B. Stridor o C. Bradycardia o D. Air hunger
Option A: A patient with myocardial infarction that resolved with no per Option B: A patient recovering well from coronary bypass would not ne Option D: Atrial tachycardia is less serious and is treated conservatively w patient with significant ventricular symptoms, such as tachycardia resulting in syn Option A: Shellfish/iodine allergy is not a contraindication because the co Options C: Open MRI scanners and anti-anxiety medications are availab Correct Answer: B. The patient has a pacemaker The implanted pacemaker will interfere with the magnetic fields of the MRI scanner
- Question A patient is scheduled for a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan for suspected lung cancer. Which of the following is a contraindication to the study for this patient? o A. The patient is allergic to shellfish. o B. The patient has a pacemaker. o C. The patient suffers from claustrophobia. o D. The patient takes antipsychotic medication.
Correct Answer: B. The patient suddenly complains of chest pain and shortness of breath. Typical symptoms of pulmonary embolism include chest pain, shortness of breath, and severe anxiety. The physician should be notified immediately. Clinical signs and symptoms for pulmonary embolism are nonspecific; therefore, patients suspected of having pulmonary embolism—because of unexplained dyspnea, tachypnea, or chest pain or the
- Question A nurse calls a physician with the concern that a patient has developed a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following symptoms has the nurse most likely observed? o A. The patient is somnolent with decreased response to the family. o B. The patient suddenly complains of chest pain and shortness of breath. o C. The patient has developed a wet cough and the nurse hears crackles on auscultation of the lungs. o D. The patient has a fever, chills, and loss of appetite. claustrophobia. Claustrophobic patients might refuse to complete the MRI scan and need sedation. These patients need to be well informed about the MRI scan procedure. The recommendation is that a physician has a discussion with them about the details in advance. Using Larger and opener MRI systems might be helpful in claustrophobic patients. o Option D: Psychiatric medication is not a contraindication to MRI scanning. MRI helps in high- resolution investigations of soft tissues without the use of ionizing radiation. This safe modality currently becomes the imaging technique of choice for diagnosing musculoskeletal,
