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Nclex questions for Fundamentals of Nursing with rationale 2024, Exams of Nursing

Nclex questions for Fundamentals of Nursing with rationale

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2023/2024

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Nclex questions for Fundamentals of
Nursing with rationale 2024 latest
A 73-year-old patient who sustained a right hip fracture in a fall requests pain
medication from the nurse. Based on his injury, which type of pain is this patient most
likely experiencing?
1) Phantom
2) Visceral
3) Deep somatic
4) Referred - answer : Answer:
3) Deep somatic
Rationale:
Deep somatic pain originates in ligaments, tendons, nerves, blood vessels, and bones.
Therefore, a hip fracture causes deep somatic pain. Phantom pain is pain that is
perceived to originate from a part that was removed during surgery. Visceral pain is
caused by deep internal pain receptors and commonly occurs in the abdominal cavity,
cranium, and thorax. Referred pain occurs in an area that is distant to the original site.
Which pain management task can the nurse safely delegate to nursing assistive
personnel?
1) Asking about pain during vital signs
2) Evaluating the effectiveness of pain medication
3) Developing a plan of care involving nonpharmacologic interventions
4) Administering over-the-counter pain medications - answer : Answer:
1) Asking about pain during vital signs
Rationale:
The nurse can delegate the task of asking about pain when nursing assistive personnel
(NAP) obtain vital signs. The NAP must be instructed to report findings to the nurse
without delay. The nurse should evaluate the effectiveness of pain medications and
develop the plan of care. Administering over-the-counter and prescription medications is
the responsibility of the registered nurse or licensed practical nurse.
Which factor in the patient's past medical history dictates that the nurse exercise caution
when administering acetaminophen (Tylenol)?
1) Hepatitis B
2) Occasional alcohol use
3) Allergy to aspirin
4) Gastric irritation with bleeding - answer : Answer:
1) Hepatitis B
Rationale:
Even in recommended doses, acetaminophen can cause severe hepatotoxicity in
patients with liver disease, such as hepatitis B. Patients who consume alcohol regularly
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Nclex questions for Fundamentals of

Nursing with rationale 2024 latest

A 73-year-old patient who sustained a right hip fracture in a fall requests pain medication from the nurse. Based on his injury, which type of pain is this patient most likely experiencing?

  1. Phantom
  2. Visceral
  3. Deep somatic
  4. Referred - answer : Answer:
  5. Deep somatic Rationale: Deep somatic pain originates in ligaments, tendons, nerves, blood vessels, and bones. Therefore, a hip fracture causes deep somatic pain. Phantom pain is pain that is perceived to originate from a part that was removed during surgery. Visceral pain is caused by deep internal pain receptors and commonly occurs in the abdominal cavity, cranium, and thorax. Referred pain occurs in an area that is distant to the original site. Which pain management task can the nurse safely delegate to nursing assistive personnel?
  6. Asking about pain during vital signs
  7. Evaluating the effectiveness of pain medication
  8. Developing a plan of care involving nonpharmacologic interventions
  9. Administering over-the-counter pain medications - answer : Answer:
  10. Asking about pain during vital signs Rationale: The nurse can delegate the task of asking about pain when nursing assistive personnel (NAP) obtain vital signs. The NAP must be instructed to report findings to the nurse without delay. The nurse should evaluate the effectiveness of pain medications and develop the plan of care. Administering over-the-counter and prescription medications is the responsibility of the registered nurse or licensed practical nurse. Which factor in the patient's past medical history dictates that the nurse exercise caution when administering acetaminophen (Tylenol)?
  11. Hepatitis B
  12. Occasional alcohol use
  13. Allergy to aspirin
  14. Gastric irritation with bleeding - answer : Answer:
  15. Hepatitis B Rationale: Even in recommended doses, acetaminophen can cause severe hepatotoxicity in patients with liver disease, such as hepatitis B. Patients who consume alcohol regularly

should also use acetaminophen cautiously. Those allergic to aspirin or other nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can use acetaminophen safely. Acetaminophen rarely causes gastrointestinal (GI) problems; therefore, it can be used for those with a history of gastric irritation and bleeding. Which action should the nurse take before administering morphine 4.0 mg intravenously to a patient complaining of incisional pain?

  1. Assess the patient's incision.
  2. Clarify the order with the prescriber.
  3. Assess the patient's respiratory status.
  4. Monitor the patient's heart rate. - answer : Answer:
  5. Assess the patient's respiratory status. Rationale: Before administering an opioid analgesic, such as morphine, the nurse should assess the patient's respiratory status because opioid analgesics can cause respiratory depression. It is not necessary to clarify the order with the physician because morphine 4 mg IV is an appropriate dose. It is not necessary to monitor the patient's heart rate. Which action should the nurse take when preparing patient-controlled analgesia for a postoperative patient?
  6. Caution the patient to limit the number of times he presses the dosing button.
  7. Ask another nurse to double-check the setup before patient use.
  8. Instruct the patient to administer a dose only when experiencing pain.
  9. Provide clear, simple instructions for dosing if the patient is cognitively impaired. - answer : Answer:
  10. Ask another nurse to double-check the setup before patient use. Rationale: As a safeguard to reduce the risk for dosing errors, the nurse should request another nurse to double-check the setup before patient use. The nurse should reassure the patient that the pump has a lockout feature that prevents him from overdosing even if he continues to push the dose administration button. The nurse should also instruct the patient to administer a dose before potentially painful activities, such as walking. Patient-controlled analgesia is contraindicated for those who are cognitively impaired. The nurse administers codeine sulfate 30 mg orally to a patient who underwent craniotomy 3 days ago for a brain tumor. How soon after administration should the nurse reassess the patient's pain?
  11. Immediately
  12. In 10 minutes
  13. In 15 minutes
  14. In 60 minutes - answer : Answer:
  15. In 60 minutes Rationale:

Rationale: The BP change is abnormal; a BP change greater than 10 mm Hg may indicate postural hypotension. The change in heart rate is abnormal; heart rate usually increases slightly after eating rather than decreasing. The temperatures are within normal range for the rectal route, and temperature increases throughout the day. It is normal to have an increased respiratory rate after exercise. The nurse assesses clients' breath sounds. Which one requires immediate medical attention? A client who has:

  1. Crackles
  2. Rhonchi
  3. Stridor
  4. Wheezes - answer : Answer:
  5. Stridor Rationale: Stridor is a sign of respiratory distress, possibly airway obstruction. Crackles and rhonchi indicate fluid in the lung; wheezes are caused by narrowing of the airway. Crackles, rhonchi, and wheezes indicate respiratory illness and are potentially serious but do not necessarily indicate respiratory distress that requires immediate medical attention. The nurse assesses the client's pedal pulses as having a pulse volume of 1 on a scale of 0 to 3. Based on this assessment finding, it would be important for the nurse to also assess the:
  6. Pulse deficit
  7. Blood pressure
  8. Apical pulse
  9. Pulse pressure - answer : Answer:
  10. Blood pressure Rationale: If the leg pulses are weak, the nurse should assess the blood pressure in order to further explore the reason for the low pulse volume. If the blood pressure is low, then a low pulse volume would be expected. The pulse deficit is the difference between the apical and radial pulse. The apical pulse would not be helpful to assess peripheral circulation. The pulse pressure is the difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures. Which of the following clients has indications of orthostatic hypotension? A client whose blood pressure is:
  11. 118/68 when standing and 110/72 when lying down
  12. 140/80, HR 82 bpm when sitting and 136/76, HR 98 bpm when standing
  13. 126/72 lying down and 133/80 when sitting, and reports shortness of breath
  1. 146/88 when lying down and 130/78 when standing, and reports feeling dizzy - answer : Answer:
  2. 146/88 when lying down and 130/78 when standing, and reports feeling dizzy Rationale: Orthostatic hypotension is a drop of 10 mm Hg or more in blood pressure upon moving to a standing position, with complaints of feeling dizzy and/or faint. A client who has experienced prolonged exposure to the cold is admitted to the hospital. Which method of taking a temperature would be most appropriate for this client?
  3. Axillary with an electronic thermometer
  4. Oral with a glass thermometer
  5. Rectal with an electronic thermometer
  6. Tympanic with an infrared thermometer - answer : Answer:
  7. Rectal with an electronic thermometer Rationale: The rectal route is the most accurate for assessing core temperature, especially when it is critical to get an accurate temperature. Therefore, in this situation it is preferred. Temperature is a particularly relevant data point for this client with hypothermia as it indicates the patient's baseline status and response to treatment. The electronic thermometer is safer than glass and is relatively accurate. Mercury thermometers are no longer used in the hospital setting. The accuracy of tympanic thermometers is debatable. Which of the following clients would have the most difficulty maintaining thermoregulation?
  8. Young child playing soccer during the summer
  9. Middle-aged adult snow skiing
  10. Young adult playing golf on a hot day
  11. Older adult raking leaves on a cold day - answer : Answer:
  12. Older adult raking leaves on a cold day Rationale: Older adults have more difficulty maintaining body heat because of their slower metabolism, loss of subcutaneous fat, and decreased vasomotor control. Which of the following clients should have an apical pulse taken? A client who is:
  13. Febrile and has a radial pulse of 100 bpm
  14. A runner who has a radial pulse of 62 bpm
  15. An infant with no history of cardiac defect
  16. An elderly adult who is taking antianxiety medication - answer : Answer:
  17. An infant with no history of cardiac defect Rationale:

phase, the nurse gathers information about the patient before she meets him. Discussion of personal information, particularly if sensitive or complex, is suitable for the working phase of the nurse-patient interaction. The patient expressing feelings and concerns also occurs during the working phase. During the working phase, care is communicated, thoughts and feelings are expressed, and honest verbal and nonverbal communication occurs. Stating expectations related to discharge is most appropriate for the termination phase—the conclusion of the relationship. A local church organizes a group for people who are having difficulty coping with the death of a loved one. Which type of group has been organized?

  1. Work-related social support group
  2. Therapy group
  3. Task group
  4. Community committee - answer : Answer:
  5. Therapy group Rationale: Therapy groups are designed to help individual members cope with issues, such as the death of a spouse, divorce, or motherhood. Work-related social support groups help members of a profession cope with work-associated stress. Task groups meet to accomplish a specified task. Community-based committees meet to discuss community issues. A mother comes to the emergency department after receiving a phone call informing her that her son was involved in a motor vehicle accident. When she approaches the triage desk, she frantically asks, "How is my son?" Which response by the nurse is best?
  6. "He's being examined now; he's awake and talking. We'll take you to see him soon."
  7. "Don't worry, I'm sure he'll be fine; we have an excellent trauma team caring for him."
  8. "Everything will be okay; please take a seat and I'll check on him for you."
  9. "Your son is strong and has youth on his side; I'm sure he'll be fine." - answer : Answer:
  10. "He's being examined now; he's awake and talking. We'll take you to see him soon." Rationale: By telling the mother that her son is awake and talking and being examined by the doctor, the nurse provides accurate information and helps reduce the mother's anxiety. Responses such as "Don't worry, everything will be okay" and "I'm sure he'll be fine" offer false reassurance and fail to respect the mother's concern. During a presentation at a nursing staff meeting, the unit manager speaks very slowly with a monotone. She uses medical and technical terminology to convey her message. Dressed in business attire, the manager stands erect and smiles occasionally while speaking. Which elements of her approach are likely to cause the staff to lose interest in what she has to say? Select all answers that apply.
  11. Slow speech
  12. Monotone
  1. Occasional smile
  2. Formal dress - answer : Answer:
  3. Slow speech
  4. Monotone Rationale: Speaking slowly with a monotone can contribute to reduced attention as the listener can think faster than the speaker is speaking, and the monotone voice has an almost hypnotizing effect. Smiling improves personal interest and connection between the speaker and listener so should not cause a loss of interest. Wearing formal business attire would not directly detract from listeners' engagement in the speaker's message unless it was unusual enough to distract listeners; nothing in the situation above indicates that is so. Which factor(s) in the patient's past medical history place(s) him at risk for falling? Select all that apply.
  5. Orthostatic hypotension
  6. Appendectomy
  7. Dizziness
  8. Hyperthyroidism - answer : Answer:
  9. Orthostatic hypotension
  10. Dizziness Rationale: Orthostatic hypotension, cognitive impairment, difficulty with walking or balance, weakness, dizziness, and drowsiness from certain medications place the patient at risk for falling. A history of right appendectomy and hyperthyroidism do not place that patient at risk for falling. The nurse is teaching a child and family about firearm safety. The nurse should instruct the child to take which step first if he sees a gun at a friend's house?
  11. Leave the area.
  12. Do not touch the gun.
  13. Stop where he is.
  14. Tell an adult. - answer : Answer:
  15. Stop where he is. Rationale: The child should be instructed to stop where he is. This allows him to think about the next steps he has memorized. Next, he should avoid touching the gun, leave the area, and immediately go tell an adult. A patient is agitated and continues to try to get out of bed. The nurse tries unsuccessfully to reorient him. What should the nurse do next?
  16. Apply a vest restraint.
  17. Move the patient to a quieter room.
  1. Poisoning
  2. Choking
  3. Falls - answer : Answer:
  4. Motor vehicle accidents Rationale: The leading causes of unintentional death for the total population, in this order, are automobile accidents, poisoning, falls, and drowning. Which change in hygiene practices may be necessary as the patient ages?
  5. Brushing teeth twice a day
  6. Bathing every other day
  7. Decreasing moisturizer use
  8. Increasing soap use - answer : Answer:
  9. Bathing every other day Rationale: As a person ages, sebaceous glands become less active, causing skin to dry. Older people may find it necessary to bathe every 2 days, increase the use of moisturizers, and decrease soap use to prevent further drying of skin. Older adults should brush their teeth after every meal and at bedtime to prevent tooth decay. It is recommended that people of all ages brush their teeth at least twice a day, so that option does not represent a change in an older adult's hygiene practices. A woman of Orthodox Jewish faith who underwent a hysterectomy for cancer is being cared for on the surgical floor. Which healthcare team member(s) could be assigned to bathe this patient? Choose all correct answers.
  10. Male nursing assistant
  11. Male licensed practical nurse
  12. Female graduate nurse
  13. Female registered nurse - answer : Answer:
  14. Female graduate nurse
  15. Female registered nurse Rationale: Orthodox Judaism prohibits personal care being provided by a member of the opposite sex. The patient who underwent a hysterectomy is female; therefore, out of respect for her religious beliefs, she should not be bathed by the male licensed practical nurse or nursing assistant. A 75-year-old patient who is 5 feet 7 inches tall and weighs 170 pounds is admitted with dehydration. A nursing diagnosis of Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity is identified for this patient. Which factor places the client at Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity? - answer : Answer: Dehydration Rationale:

Dehydration places the patient at risk for impaired skin integrity. Dehydration, caused by fluid volume deficit, causes the skin to become dry and crack easily, impairing skin integrity. People who are very thin or very obese are more likely to experience impaired skin integrity. This patient is of normal height and weight; therefore, his body stature does not place him at risk. There is nothing to suggest that this patient has an impaired nutritional status. The nurse notes a lesion that appears to be caused by tissue compression on the right hip of a patient who suffered a stroke 5 days ago. How should the nurse document this finding?

  1. Maceration
  2. Abrasion
  3. Excoriation
  4. Pressure ulcer - answer : Answer:
  5. Pressure ulcer Rationale: The nurse should document a lesion caused by tissue compression and inadequate perfusion as a pressure ulcer. Abrasion, a rubbing away of the epidermal layer of skin, is commonly caused by shearing forces that occur when a patient moves or is moved in bed. Maceration is a softening of skin from prolonged moisture. Excoriation is a loss of the superficial layers of the skin caused by the digestive enzymes in feces. The charge nurse asks the nursing assistive personnel (NAP) to give a bag bath to a patient with end-stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. How should the NAP proceed?
  6. Bathe the patient's entire body using 8 to 10 washcloths.
  7. Assist the patient to a chair and provide bathing supplies.
  8. Saturate a towel and blanket in a plastic bag, and then bathe the patient.
  9. Assist the patient to the bathtub and provide a bath chair. - answer : Answer:
  10. Bathe the patient's entire body using 8 to 10 washcloths. Rationale: A towel bath is a modification of the bed bath in which the NAP places a large towel and a bath blanket into a plastic bag, saturates them with a commercially prepared mixture of moisturizer, nonrinse cleaning agent, and water; warms in them in a microwave, and then uses them to bathe the patient. A bag bath is a modification of the towel bath, in which the NAP uses 8 to 10 washcloths instead of a towel or blanket. Each part of the patient's body is bathed with a fresh cloth. A bag bath is not given in a chair or in the tub. For a morbidly obese patient, which intervention should the nurse choose to counteract the pressure created by the skin folds?
  11. Cover the mattress with a sheepskin.
  12. Keep the linens wrinkle free.
  13. Separate the skin folds with towels.

Rationale: The client with unstable diabetes mellitus can safely be paired in a client-care assignment because the client is free from infection. Perforation of the bowel exposes the client to infection requiring antibiotic therapy during the postoperative period. Therefore, this client should not be paired with a client in protective isolation. A client in protective isolation should not be paired with a client who has an open wound, such as a stage 3 pressure ulcer, or with a client who has a urinary tract infection. Which action demonstrates a break in sterile technique?

  1. Remaining 1 foot away from nonsterile areas
  2. Placing sterile items on the sterile field
  3. Avoiding the border of the sterile drape
  4. Reaching 1 foot over the sterile field - answer : Answer:
  5. Reaching 1 foot over the sterile field Rationale: Reaching over the sterile field while wearing sterile garb breaks sterile technique. While observing sterile technique, healthcare workers should remain 1 foot away from nonsterile areas while wearing sterile garb, place sterile items needed for the procedure on the sterile drape, and avoid coming in contact with the 1-inch border of the sterile drape. A mother who breastfeeds her child passes on which antibody through breast milk?
  6. IgA
  7. IgE
  8. IgG
  9. IgM - answer : Answer:
  10. IgG Rationale: The antibody IgG is passed to the child through the mother's breast milk during breastfeeding. IgA, IgE, and IgM are produced by the child's body after exposure to an antigen. What is the rationale for hand washing? Hand washing is expected to remove:
  11. transient flora from the skin.
  12. resident flora from the skin.
  13. all microorganisms from the skin.
  14. media for bacterial growth. - answer : Answer:
  15. transient flora from the skin. Rationale: There are two types of normal flora: transient and resident. Transient flora are normal flora that a person picks up by coming in contact with objects or another person (e.g., when you touch a soiled dressing). You can remove these with hand washing. Resident flora live deep in skin layers where they live and multiply harmlessly. They are

permanent inhabitants of the skin and cannot usually be removed with routine hand washing. Removing all microorganisms from the skin (sterilization) is not possible without damaging the skin tissues. To live and thrive in humans, microbes must be able to use the body's precise balance of food, moisture, nutrients, electrolytes, pH, temperature, and light. Food, water, and soil that provide these conditions may serve as nonliving reservoirs. Hand washing does little to make the skin uninhabitable for microorganisms, except perhaps briefly when an antiseptic agent is used for cleansing. Which of the following incidents requires the nurse to complete an occurrence report?

  1. Medication given 30 minutes after scheduled dose time
  2. Patient's dentures lost after transfer
  3. Worn electrical cord discovered on an IV infusion pump
  4. Prescription without the route of administration - answer : Answer:
  5. Patient's dentures lost after transfer Rationale: You would need to complete an occurrence report if you suspect your patient's personal items to be lost or stolen. A medication can be administered within a half-hour of the administration time without an error in administration; therefore, an occurrence report is not necessary. The worn electrical cord should be taken out of use and reported to the biomedical department. The nurse should seek clarification if the provider's order is missing information; an occurrence report is not necessary. The nurse is orienting a new nurse to the unit and reviews source-oriented charting. Which statement by the nurse best describes source-oriented charting? Source-oriented charting:
  6. Separates the health record according to discipline
  7. Organizes documentation around the patient's problems
  8. Highlights the patient's concerns, problems, and strengths
  9. Is designed to streamline documentation - answer : Answer:
  10. Separates the health record according to discipline Rationale: In source-oriented charting, each discipline documents findings in a separately labeled section of the chart. Problem-oriented charting organizes notes around the patient's problems. Focus® charting highlights the patient's concerns, problems, and strengths. Charting by exception is a unique charting system designed to streamline documentation. When the nurse completes the patient's admission nursing database, the patient reports that he does not have any allergies. Which acceptable medical abbreviation can the nurse use to document this finding?
  11. NA
  12. NDA
  13. NKA
  14. NPO - answer : Answer:
  1. It improves interdisciplinary collaboration that improves efficiency in procedures.
  2. This type of system tracks medication administration and usage over 24 hours. - answer : Answer:
  3. It improves interdisciplinary collaboration that improves efficiency in procedures. Rationale: The EHR has several benefits for use, including improving interdisciplinary collaboration and making procedures more accurate and efficient. An occurrence report is an organizational record of an unusual occurrence or accident that is not a part of the client's record. Integrated plans of care (IPOC) are a combined charting and care plan format. A medication administration record (MAR) is used to document medications administered and their usage. In the United States, the first programs for training nurses were affiliated with:
  4. The military
  5. General hospitals
  6. Civil service
  7. Religious orders - answer : Answer:
  8. Religious orders Rationale: When the Civil War broke out, the Army used nurses who had already been trained in religious orders. Although the Army did provide some training, it occurred later than in the religious orders. Although nurses were trained in hospitals, the training and the hospitals were affiliated with religious orders. Civil service was not mentioned in Chapter 1 and was not a factor in the early 1800s. Nursing started with religious orders. The Hindu faith was the first to write about nursing. In the United States, all training for nurses was affiliated with religious orders until after the Civil War. Which of the following is/are an example(s) of a health restoration activity? Select all that apply.
  9. Administering an antibiotic every day
  10. Teaching the importance of hand washing
  11. Assessing a client's surgical incision
  12. Advising a woman to get an annual mammogram after age 50 years - answer : Answer:
  13. Administering an antibiotic every day
  14. Assessing a client's surgical incision Rationale: Health restoration activities help an ill client return to health. This would include taking an antibiotic every day and assessing a client's surgical incision. Hand washing and mammograms both involve healthy people who are trying to prevent illness. Which of the following aspects of nursing is essential to defining it as both a profession and a discipline?
  1. Established standards of care
  2. Professional organizations
  3. Practice supported by scientific research
  4. Activities determined by a scope of practice - answer : Answer:
  5. Practice supported by scientific research Rationale: The American Nurses Association (ANA) has developed standards of care, but they are unrelated to defining nursing as a profession or discipline. Having professional organizations is not included in accepted characteristics of either a profession or a discipline. A profession must have knowledge that is based on technical and scientific knowledge. The theoretical knowledge of a discipline must be based on research, so both are scientifically based. Having a scope of practice is not included in accepted characteristics of either a profession or a discipline. The charge nurse on the medical surgical floor assigns vital signs to the nursing assistive personnel (NAP) and medication administration to the licensed vocational nurse (LVN). Which nursing model of care is this floor following?
  6. Team nursing
  7. Case method nursing
  8. Functional nursing
  9. Primary nursing - answer : Answer:
  10. Functional nursing Rationale: With team nursing, an RN or LVN is paired with a NAP. The pair is then assigned to render care for a group of patients. In case method nursing, one nurse cares for one patient during her entire shift. Private duty nursing is an example of this care model. This medical surgical floor is following the functional nursing model of care, in which care is partitioned and assigned to a staff member with the appropriate skills. For example, the NAP is assigned vital signs, and the LVN is assigned medication administration. When the primary nursing model is utilized, one nurse manages care for a group of patients 24 hours a day, even though others provide care during part of the day. A patient who suffered a stroke has difficulty swallowing. Which healthcare team member should be consulted to assess the patient's risk for aspiration?
  11. Respiratory therapist
  12. Occupational therapist
  13. Dentist
  14. Speech therapist - answer : Answer:
  15. Speech therapist Rationale: Respiratory therapists provide care for patients with respiratory disorders. Occupational therapists help patients regain function and independence. Dentists diagnose and treat

about the client's responses to nursing care to determine whether client outcomes were met. In which phase of the nursing process does the nurse decide whether her actions have successfully treated the client's health problem? - answer : Answer: Evaluation Rationale: In the assessment phase, the nurse gathers data from many sources for analysis in the diagnosis phase. In the diagnosis phase, the nurse identifies the client's health status. In the planning outcomes phase, the nurse and client decide on goals they want to achieve. In the intervention planning phase, the nurse identifies specific interventions to help achieve the identified goal. During the implementation phase, the nurse carries out the interventions or delegates them to other health care team members. During the evaluation phase, the nurse judges whether her actions have been successful in treating or preventing the identified client health problem. What is the most basic reason that self-knowledge is important for nurses? Because it helps the nurse to:

  1. Identify personal biases that may affect his thinking and actions
  2. Identify the most effective interventions for a patient
  3. Communicate more efficiently with colleagues, patients, and families
  4. Learn and remember new procedures and techniques - answer : Answer:
  5. Identify personal biases that may affect his thinking and actions Rationale: The most basic reason is that self-knowledge directly affects the nurse's thinking and the actions he chooses. Indirectly, thinking is involved in identifying effective interventions, communicating, and learning procedures. However, because identifying personal biases affects all the other nursing actions, it is the most basic reason. Arrange the steps of the nursing process in the sequence in which they generally occur. A. Assessment B. Evaluation C. Planning outcomes D. Planning interventions E. Diagnosis
  6. E, B, A, D, C
  7. A, B, C, D, E
  8. A, E, C, D, B
  9. D, A, B, E, C - answer : Answer:
  10. A, E, C, D, B Rationale: Logically, the steps are assessment, diagnosis, planning outcomes, planning interventions, and evaluation. Keep in mind that steps are not always performed in this order, depending on the patient's needs, and that steps overlap.

How are critical thinking skills and critical thinking attitudes similar? Both are:

  1. Influences on the nurse's problem solving and decision making
  2. Like feelings rather than cognitive activities
  3. Cognitive activities rather than feelings
  4. Applicable in all aspects of a person's life - answer : Answer:
  5. Influences on the nurse's problem solving and decision making Rationale: Cognitive skills are used in complex thinking processes, such as problem solving and decision making. Critical thinking attitudes determine how a person uses her cognitive skills. Critical thinking attitudes are traits of the mind, such as independent thinking, intellectual curiosity, intellectual humility, and fair-mindedness, to name a few. Critical thinking skills refer to the cognitive activities used in complex thinking processes. A few examples of these skills involve recognizing the need for more information, recognizing gaps in one's own knowledge, and separating relevant from irrelevant data. Critical thinking, which consists of intellectual skills and attitudes, can be used in all aspects of life. The nurse is preparing to admit a patient from the emergency department. The transferring nurse reports that the patient with chronic lung disease has a 30+ year history of tobacco use. The nurse used to smoke a pack of cigarettes a day at one time and worked very hard to quit smoking. She immediately thinks to herself, "I know I tend to feel negatively about people who use tobacco, especially when they have a serious lung condition; I figure if I can stop smoking, they should be able to. I must remember how physically and psychologically difficult that is, and be very careful not to let be judgmental of this patient." This best illustrates:
  6. Theoretical knowledge
  7. Self-knowledge
  8. Using reliable resources
  9. Use of the nursing process - answer : Answer:
  10. Self-knowledge Rationale: Personal knowledge (2) is self-understanding—awareness of one's beliefs, values, biases, and so on. That best describes the nurse's awareness that her bias can affect her patient care. Theoretical knowledge consists of information, facts, principles, and theories in nursing and related disciplines; it consists of research findings and rationally constructed explanations of phenomena. Using reliable resources is a critical thinking skill. The nursing process is a problem-solving process consisting of the steps of assessing, diagnosing, planning outcomes, planning interventions, implementing, and evaluating. The nurse has not yet met this patient, so she could not have begun the nursing process. Which organization's standards require that all patients be assessed specifically for pain?