Download Level 2 - RNSG 1247 - Exam 1 Test Bank 2025-2026. Questions & Correct Answers. Graded A and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!
Level 2 - RNSG 1247 - Exam 1 Test
Bank 2025-2026. Questions & Correct
Answers. Graded A
a 3 way valve remains closed when no pressure is present on a close- ended cath. - ANSPICC line can be inserted at bedside a strain of M. tuberculosis develops resistance to two of the most potent first-line anti tuberculous drugs, it is defined as multi-durg resistant tuberculosis. what is the abbreviation? - ANSM.D.R. T.B a T.S.T. will be positive in what type of patients? - ANSthose with active T.B. disease., a B.C.G. vaccine., & those with a prior T.B. infection active disease develops within the first 2 years of infection, the patient is deemed primary T.B. - ANScoughing up blood, aka hemoptysis, is a late symptom. Adherence to drug regimens is critical to prevent., - disease progression., opportunistic diseases., & viral drug resistance - ANSMost important teaching for patients starting treatment is drug adherence allow 1 finger breadth under tape to permit neck flexion - ANSstomatitis., - is inflammation of the opening.
always be sure what order to draw the tubes. - ANSblood cultures are always drawn first. ART can significantly slow disease progression. ART stands for what? - ANSantiretroviral therapy avoid phlebotomy in., - mastectomy arm., veins above I.V. infusions., red, irritated, bruised, painful veins., & dialysis arm - ANSalways use standard precautions during phlebotomy Central lines can have up to 3 lumens - ANSall central lines terminate in the superior vena cava. chlamydia and gonorrhea are more common in women - ANSsyphilis is more common in men chlamydia and gonorrhea can cause P.I.D. and infertility in women if left untreated. - ANSconfirmed diagnosis for a male with chlamydia and/or gonorrhea is a gram stain chlamydia is the 'Silent Disease" - ANSthe First sign of chlamydia in women is often a U.T.I. Chlamydia., - is gram negative bacterium., most prominent in women., & the incubation is 1 to 3 weeks. - ANSgenital warts., - is caused by human papilomavirus., enters through abrasions., & the incubation is 3 to 4 months.
dyspnea., - is a late symptom of T.B. that may signify pulmonary disease or pleural effusion. - ANS. flush central lines with 5 to 10 ml of Normal Saline - ANSclotted lines are at greater risk of infection. for open-ended caths, always have the clamp closed when not in use - ANSopen-ended caths can have a heparin lock depending on hospital policy. (SASH). fourth generation testing screens for antibodies to the virus in blood samples, but also for H.I.V. antigens, which show up in the body much sooner than antibodies. how long does this test usually take? - ANS weeks. genital herpes., - is the herpes simplex virus (HSV)., enters through the mucous membranes or breaks in the skin. - ANS. gonorrhea and chlamydia are most commonly asymptomatic in women. - ANS. H.I.V. is considered AIDS when the C.D. 4 count is less than 200 - ANS. H.P.V. is associated with cancer of the cervix - ANSgenital warts has a very long treatment Herpes is most contagious when lesions are visible. - ANS.
how does a person get infected with an S.T.I.? - ANSintercourse with an infected partner how does a recurrent H.S.V. episode differ from the primary infection? - ANSshorter how long should a patient with T.B. remain on med therapy? - ANS months how many days are short term central lines left in? - ANS3 to 10 days how many days is a tunneled central line sutured into place? - ANS7 to 14 days how many minutes do you wait in between suctioning? - ANS1 minute how often should trach tube be changed? - ANSmonthly hyperparathyroidism causes increased bone resorption of Calcium which can cause osteoporosis and kidney stones - ANS. if a patient is positive for chlamydia and/or gonorrhea, further testing should be done for what 2 other S.T.I's? - ANSH.I.V., & syphilis if no armband is present, then no specimen can be drawn. - ANS.
In what stage of H.I.V. is asymptomatic and is a sign that disease is progressing? - ANSearly chronic In what stage of H.I.V. is the C.D. 4 count less than 500 and the patient is more susceptible for infection? - ANSlate chronic internal jugular, subclavian, or femoral veins are used for what type of central line? - ANSshort term. Non-tunneled. Iodine decreases vascularity of the thyroid gland. - ANS. Lab results for hypothryoidism would indicate increased T.S.H. and decreased T. 3 and T. 4 - ANS. laryngeal stridor., - is a high pitch sound due to closing of larynx - ANS. Most important safety measure when leaving the room of a trach patient that cannot communicate? - ANScall light Multidrug therapy helps prevent resistance - ANS. mycobacterium can not survive in the sunlight. - ANSlatent but not active T.B. needs to be treated with I.N.H. for 6 to 9 months. myxedema coma is considered a medical emergency and can be fatal - ANS.
obturator., - is used to guide the direction of the outer cannula during insertion - ANScuffed., - to trach tube has an inflated seal to create a tight fit in the trachea once the focus of tb infection is established a granuloma develops which is the hallmark of T.B. - ANSa person who does not have active T.B., are asymptomatic and cannot transmit the disease are deemed latent, (LTBI). oral hairy leukoplakia happens in late chronic stage of H.I.V. - ANS. patient has T.B. symptoms but negative skin test. what would the doc order next? - ANSsputum culture permacaths are ONLY used for dialysis. - ANSBefore flush, during med admin, pull back for blood, then continue the flush. phlebotomy., - is the act of drawing blood from the body. - ANSthe first step of phlebotomy is to verify the doctor's order. PICC lines are placed in the brachial - ANS. PICC lines may be in place 6 weeks to 6 months. - ANS. pleural effusion., - is caused by bacteria in the pleural space which triggers inflammatory reaction and pleural exudate of protein-rich fluid. - ANSempyema., - is accumulation of purulent exudate in a body cavity,
Rule of thumb regarding infection and central line: The catheter is the problem until proven otherwise! - ANSupon removal of a central line, hold pressure with 4 by 4's for at least 5 minutes. Safety first., - maintain patent airway., suction., provide humidification., & have equipment available - ANS. short term are placed for emergency situations and are removed before discharge. - ANS. skin test involve intra-dermal injection of an antigen. - ANSinduration., - is an increase in fibrous elements in tissue commonly associated with inflammation & marked by loss of elasticity & pliability; sclerosis. hardened mass or formation sputum samples can be obtained by expectoration, tracheal suction or bronchoscopy. - ANSThis test can be used for culture and sensitivity. sterile technique is used when cleaning a central line - ANSalways know if the patient is on anticoagulants before removing a central cath syphilis., - is treponema palllidum bacterium., enters through small breaks in the skin or mucous membranes., & the incubation is 10 to 90 days. - ANSgonorrhea., - is gram negative diplococcus bacteria which causes inflammatory response in the mucosal tissues of the genitalia, rectum, & oropharynx., & the incubation is 3 to 8 days.
T. 4 is thyroxine - ANST. 3 is triiodothyronine T.B. requires what type of isolation? - ANSairborne., - which includes N. 95 mask. T.S.H. is released by the pituitary gland - ANS. The B.C.G. vaccine, aka bacille Calmette-Guerin, can cause a false- positive result on a T.S.T. - ANSA.F.B. is acid fast baccilus the Major goal of HIV is Prevention., - what are the 4 C.D.C. strategies? - ANSuse testing as routine health care., use rapid testing., work to modify risky behavior., & offer tests universally to pregnant women the signs & symptoms of gonorrhea in women are asymptomatic - ANS. the Specific treponemal tests., - is F.T.A., - it's an antibody test - ANS. the Syphilis diagnostic test includes., - testing for presence of antibodies. - ANSNontreponemal tests include., - V.D.R.L., & R.P.R. the T.S.T., aka tuberculin skin test or Mantoux test, uses P.P.D., aka purified protein derivative. its the standard method to screen people for M. tuberculosis. - ANSsputum culture is the only diagnostic test that can confirm T.B. takes up to 8 weeks for confirmation diagnosis.
tracheostomy suctioning purpose is to remove respiratory secretions and maintain optimum vent and oxygenation - ANS. tracheostomy., - is a surgically created stoma in the trachea to establish an airway - ANS. treatment will be lifelong for patients with hypothyroidism. - ANS. true or false., - After removal of all warts, patient is not longer contagious. - ANSfalse true or false., - Culture is the best way to diagnose genital warts. - ANSfalse true or false., - T.B. can be diagnosed by chest x-ray with findings of upper lobe infiltrates - ANSfalse tuberculosis., - is an infectious disease caused by mycobacterium tuberculosis. involves the lungs but any organ can be infected. gram- positive, acid-fast bacillus. - ANS. tunneled central lines are placed under SQ tissue for 3 to 6 inches to it's exit - ANS. what 3 meds are used to treat gonorrhea and chlamydia? - ANSdoxycycline (Vibramycin)., azithromycin (Zithromax)., & ceftriaxone (Rocephin)
what age group is more susceptible to H.P.V.? - ANSstudents of college age what are 2 risks with short term central lines? - ANSinfection., & pneumothorax what are 2 things to know before suctioning? - ANSfrequency., & depth what are Health promotion Goals for care? - ANScompliance., adopt healthy lifestyle., beneficial relationships., spiritual well-being., & coping what are other abnormal findings in hypothyroidism? - ANSincreased cholesterol and triglycerides., increased creatine kinase., & anemia what are the 2 antimiotic agents for genital warts? - ANSpodofilox., & imiquimod what are the 4 central lines that are for long term use? - ANSPICC., tunneled., implanted ports., & permcath what are the 4 drugs used for initial therapy of T.B.? - ANSisoniazid., rifampin., pyazinamide., & ethambutol what are the 5 rights to phlebotomy? - ANSpatient., order., specimen., date., & label
the 3rd test is the Nucleic acid test., if it is (4b.) negative, that means there was a false positive on the 1st test & they do not have HIV, but if it's (4b.) positive, that means they are positive for HIV & test 2 was a false negative. what are the hormones secreted by the thyroid? - ANST. 3; T. 4; & calcitonin what are the hyperparathyroidism lab results? - ANSelevated: P.T.H. (>65)., Calcium (>10)., chloride, creatinine, amylase., & decreased: phosphorus (<3) what are the initial symptoms of T.B.? - ANSfatigue, malaise, anorexia, weight loss, low-grade fever, & night sweats what are the Late symptoms of T.B.? - ANSdyspnea., sudden onset of high fever of 102., decreased movement of chest wall., & hemoptysis what are the Nucleoside-Nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors. (NRTIs/NtRT) that are part of ART therapy? (3) - ANSzidovudine., retrovir., & A.Z.T. what are the risk of a central line? (5) - ANSinfiltration., occlusion., thrombus., air embolism., & infection what are the side effects of H.I.V. treatment? - ANSdepression., diarrhea., peripheral neuropathy., pain., Nausea, Vomiting., & fatigue
what are the signs & symptoms in men with gonorrhea? - ANSdysuria and profuse purulent urethral discharge what are the signs & symptoms of chlamydia & gonorrhea in women? - ANSasymptomatic., dysuria., cervical ectopy., & frequent urination what are the signs & symptoms of H.I.V.? - ANSacute infection. usually 2- weeks after infection., often flu-like symptoms., fatigue., sore throat., enlarged lymph nodes., headache., muscle & joint pain., & diarrhea what are the signs & symptoms of herpes? - ANSburning, itching, tingling., small blisters on the inner thigh, penis, scrotum, valva, perineum, perianal, vagina, & cervix., & the lesions may rupture & form shallow ulcerations. what are the signs & symptoms of hypercalcemia? - ANSdecreased memory., confusion., fatigue., muscle weakness., & constipation what are the signs & symptoms of hyperthyroidism? - ANShunger., weight loss., fatigue., brittle nails., bounding pulse., slight heart murmur., elevated heart & respiratory rate., goiter., diaphoresis (intolerance to heat)., diarrhea., amenorrhea., & enlarged eyes what are the Signs & Symptoms of hypocalcemia? - ANStetany., Trousseau's sign., Chvostek's sign., numbness or tingling around mouth or extremities., & laryngeal stridor (high pitch sound due to closing of larynx)
weight loss., alopecia., flu-like., & duration is 1 to 2 years., & feeling ill only lasts about 1 to 2 weeks what are the Signs & Symptoms of thyroid storm? - ANSdyspnea., hyperthermia (up to 105.3)., tachycardia (>130)., shock., restlessness., seizures., abdominal pain & nausea., delirium., & coma what are the signs of respiratory obstruction? - ANScopious secretions, dyspnea, flared nostrils, chest retractions, prolonged wheezing, & noisy breathing what are the Signs of Synthroid overdose? - ANSorthopnea., dyspnea., rapid pulse., palpitations., nervousness., & insomnia what are the toxicities of H.I.V. treatment? - ANScommon metabolic disorders., lipodystrophy., hyperlipidemia., insulin resistance., bone disease., lactic acidosis., & cardiovascular disease If these effects are experienced, change treatment. what are the triggers for recurrent herpes? (3) - ANSstress., sunburn., & menses what are the types of catheter tips? - ANSopen-ended., & close-ended
what are the uses of a tracheostomy? - ANSbypass an upper airway obstruction., permit long-term mechanical ventilation., & facilitate removal of secretions what Beta Blocker helps to control nervousness, tachycardia, tremors, anxiety and heat tolerance with hyperthyroidism? - ANSPropranolol (Inderal) what Bisphosphate inhibits osteoclast reabsorption to treat hyperparathyroidism? - ANSFosamax what Calcimimetic agent stops the release of calcium in hyperparathyroidism? - ANScinacalcet what class of drugs are used to immediately treat herpes? - ANSantivirals what Diagnostic test is used to confirm herpes? - ANSserologic test for antibodies to H.S.V., & viral culture what do the thyroid hormones, T. 3; & T. 4; control? - ANSincrease metabolic rate., increase protein & bone turnover., increase responsiveness to catecholamines., & fetal & infant growth & development what does DOT stand for? - ANSdirectly observed therapy., - it ensures adherence to drug therapy what does H.I.V. stand for? - ANSHuman Immunodeficiency Virus
