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LABOR & DELIVERY ROOM QUIZ, Cheat Sheet of Nursing

Different type of test, randomly generated for review.

Typology: Cheat Sheet

2023/2024

Uploaded on 05/27/2025

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**Multiple Choice**
1. Which hormone is primarily responsible for
initiating uterine contractions during labour?
- a) Progesterone
- b) Oestrogen
- c) Oxytocin
- d) Prolactin
**Answer:** c) Oxytocin
2. What is the normal range for foetal heart rate
during labour?
- a) 60–100 bpm
- b) 110–160 bpm
- c) 170–200 bpm
- d) 200–220 bpm
**Answer:** b) 110–160 bpm
3. Which of the following is a sign of the onset
of true labour?
- a) Irregular contractions
- b) Contractions relieved by rest
- c) Progressive cervical dilation
- d) No change in cervical effacement
**Answer:** c) Progressive cervical dilation
4. The first stage of labour ends with:
- a) Delivery of the baby
- b) Full cervical dilation
- c) Expulsion of the placenta
- d) Rupture of membranes
**Answer:** b) Full cervical dilation
5. What is the most common presentation of the
foetus at delivery?
- a) Breech
- b) Face
- c) Vertex
- d) Shoulder
**Answer:** c) Vertex
6. Which of the following is NOT a
recommended pain relief method in labour?
- a) Epidural anaesthesia
- b) Paracetamol
- c) General anaesthesia (routine use)
- d) Entonox (gas and air)
**Answer:** c) General anaesthesia (routine
use)
7. The second stage of labour refers to:
- a) Onset of contractions to full dilation
- b) Full dilation to delivery of baby
- c) Delivery of baby to delivery of placenta
- d) Rupture of membranes to delivery
**Answer:** b) Full dilation to delivery of
baby
8. Which instrument is commonly used to
monitor labour progress?
- a) Sphygmomanometer
- b) Partograph
- c) Otoscope
- d) Glucometer
**Answer:** b) Partograph[9]
9. What is the primary risk of prolonged rupture
of membranes?
- a) Hypertension
- b) Infection
- c) Haemorrhage
- d) Preterm labour
**Answer:** b) Infection
10. The term "station" in labour refers to:
- a) Foetal heart rate
- b) Position of the placenta
- c) Descent of the foetal head in relation to
the ischial spines
- d) Maternal blood pressure
**Answer:** c) Descent of the foetal head in
relation to the ischial spines
**True or False**
11. The latent phase is part of the first stage of
labour.
- **Answer:** True
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Multiple Choice

  1. Which hormone is primarily responsible for initiating uterine contractions during labour?
    • a) Progesterone
    • b) Oestrogen
    • c) Oxytocin
    • d) Prolactin Answer: c) Oxytocin
  2. What is the normal range for foetal heart rate during labour?
    • a) 60–100 bpm
    • b) 110–160 bpm
    • c) 170–200 bpm
    • d) 200–220 bpm Answer: b) 110–160 bpm
  3. Which of the following is a sign of the onset of true labour?
    • a) Irregular contractions
    • b) Contractions relieved by rest
    • c) Progressive cervical dilation
    • d) No change in cervical effacement Answer: c) Progressive cervical dilation
  4. The first stage of labour ends with:
    • a) Delivery of the baby
    • b) Full cervical dilation
    • c) Expulsion of the placenta
    • d) Rupture of membranes Answer: b) Full cervical dilation
  5. What is the most common presentation of the foetus at delivery?
    • a) Breech
    • b) Face
    • c) Vertex
    • d) Shoulder Answer: c) Vertex
  6. Which of the following is NOT a recommended pain relief method in labour?
    • a) Epidural anaesthesia
      • b) Paracetamol
      • c) General anaesthesia (routine use)
      • d) Entonox (gas and air) Answer: c) General anaesthesia (routine use)
  7. The second stage of labour refers to:
  • a) Onset of contractions to full dilation
  • b) Full dilation to delivery of baby
  • c) Delivery of baby to delivery of placenta
  • d) Rupture of membranes to delivery Answer: b) Full dilation to delivery of baby
  1. Which instrument is commonly used to monitor labour progress?
  • a) Sphygmomanometer
  • b) Partograph
  • c) Otoscope
  • d) Glucometer Answer: b) Partograph[9]
  1. What is the primary risk of prolonged rupture of membranes?
  • a) Hypertension
  • b) Infection
  • c) Haemorrhage
  • d) Preterm labour Answer: b) Infection
  1. The term "station" in labour refers to:
  • a) Foetal heart rate
  • b) Position of the placenta
  • c) Descent of the foetal head in relation to the ischial spines
  • d) Maternal blood pressure Answer: c) Descent of the foetal head in relation to the ischial spines True or False
  1. The latent phase is part of the first stage of labour.
  • Answer: True
  1. An episiotomy is always required during vaginal delivery.
    • Answer: False
  2. Continuous foetal heart monitoring is necessary for all low-risk pregnancies.
    • Answer: False
  3. The placenta is usually delivered within 30 minutes after the baby.
    • Answer: True
  4. Skin-to-skin contact after birth is beneficial for both mother and baby.
    • Answer: True
  5. Oxytocin can be used to induce or augment labour.
    • Answer: True
  6. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid always indicates foetal distress.
    • Answer: False
  7. The use of a partograph is recommended to monitor the progress of labour.
    • Answer: True[9]
  8. The third stage of labour involves the delivery of the placenta.
    • Answer: True
  9. A breech presentation is the most common foetal presentation.
    • Answer: False Select All That Apply
  10. Which of the following are signs of placental separation?
    • a) Lengthening of the umbilical cord
    • b) Sudden gush of blood
    • c) Uterus rises in the abdomen
      • d) Maternal hypotension Answer: a, b, c
  11. Complications during labour may include:
  • a) Postpartum haemorrhage
  • b) Shoulder dystocia
  • c) Eclampsia
  • d) Urinary tract infection Answer: a, b, c
  1. Non-pharmacological pain relief methods in labour include:
  • a) Breathing techniques
  • b) Massage
  • c) Epidural anaesthesia
  • d) Hydrotherapy Answer: a, b, d
  1. Indications for caesarean section include:
  • a) Foetal distress
  • b) Prolonged labour
  • c) Maternal request (after counselling)
  • d) Normal vertex presentation Answer: a, b, c
  1. Which interventions can help reduce the risk of infection during delivery?
  • a) Hand hygiene
  • b) Sterile equipment
  • c) Prophylactic antibiotics (when indicated)
  • d) Delayed cord clamping Answer: a, b, c Identification
  1. Name the hormone responsible for milk let-down after delivery.
  • Answer: Oxytocin
  1. What is the name of the scoring system used to assess a newborn’s condition at birth?
  • Answer: Apgar score
  • d) Reduce risk of jaundice Answer: b) Increase neonatal iron stores True or False
  1. The presence of a birth companion can improve maternal satisfaction during labour.
  • Answer: True[7][10]
  1. All women in labour require intravenous fluids.
  • Answer: False
  1. Vaginal examinations should be performed as frequently as possible during labour.
  • Answer: False
  1. Early amniotomy is always necessary to speed up labour.
  • Answer: False
  1. Respectful communication by staff is an important factor in positive childbirth experience.
  • Answer: True[6][7][10] Identification
  1. Name the tool used to assess cervical dilation and effacement.
  • Answer: Vaginal examination
  1. What is the term for the process of the foetus descending into the pelvis before labour?
  • Answer: Lightening
  1. What is the term for the surgical delivery of a baby through the abdominal wall?
  • Answer: Caesarean section
  1. What is the name of the thick, protective substance that covers the foetus’s skin in utero?
  • Answer: Vernix caseosa
  1. What is the term for the period immediately following delivery of the placenta?
  • Answer: Fourth stage of labour —–––––—–––––—–––––—–––––—–––––—–

Advanced Labour and Delivery: 50-Item

Question and Answer Set

Multiple Choice

  1. Which of the following best explains the Ferguson reflex in labour?
  • a) Maternal urge to urinate due to foetal descent
  • b) Reflex release of oxytocin in response to vaginal stretching
  • c) Uterine relaxation after delivery of the placenta
  • d) Maternal hyperventilation during contractions Answer: b) Reflex release of oxytocin in response to vaginal stretching
  1. In a partograph, the alert line is crossed. What is the most appropriate initial action?
  • a) Immediate caesarean section
  • b) Augment labour after assessment
  • c) Observe for another 4 hours
  • d) Start antibiotics Answer: b) Augment labour after assessment
  1. A multiparous woman presents with a transverse lie at term. The most likely risk is:
  • a) Cord prolapse
  • b) Shoulder dystocia
  • c) Uterine rupture
  • d) Placental abruption Answer: a) Cord prolapse
  1. Which of the following is the most reliable indicator of uterine rupture in a woman with previous caesarean section?
  • a) Sudden cessation of contractions
  • b) Vaginal bleeding
  • c) Foetal bradycardia
  • d) Maternal tachycardia Answer: c) Foetal bradycardia
  1. A patient in labour develops sudden hypotension, tachycardia, and respiratory distress after delivery of the baby. The most likely diagnosis is:
  • a) Pulmonary embolism
  • b) Amniotic fluid embolism
  • c) Uterine atony
  • d) Eclampsia Answer: b) Amniotic fluid embolism
  1. Which of the following is a contraindication to external cephalic version (ECV)?
  • a) Breech presentation at 37 weeks
  • b) Oligohydramnios
  • c) Multiparity
  • d) Anterior placenta Answer: b) Oligohydramnios
  1. In shoulder dystocia, which manoeuvre is performed first?
  • a) Zavanelli manoeuvre
  • b) McRoberts manoeuvre
  • c) Woods screw manoeuvre
  • d) Fundal pressure Answer: b) McRoberts manoeuvre
  1. Which foetal heart rate pattern is most concerning for acute foetal hypoxia?
  • a) Early decelerations
  • b) Variable decelerations
  • c) Sinusoidal pattern
  • d) Accelerations Answer: c) Sinusoidal pattern
  1. A parturient with a history of rheumatic heart disease develops sudden pulmonary oedema during labour. Which drug is contraindicated for pain relief?
  • a) Entonox
  • b) Epidural anaesthesia
  • c) Pethidine
  • d) Morphine Answer: b) Epidural anaesthesia
  1. Which of the following is the most specific sign of placental abruption?
  • a) Vaginal bleeding
  • b) Foetal distress
  • c) Uterine tenderness and hypertonicity
  • d) Maternal hypotension Answer: c) Uterine tenderness and hypertonicity

True or False

  1. The presence of late decelerations with absent baseline variability on CTG is an indication for immediate delivery.
  • Answer: True
  1. Magnesium sulphate is used for seizure prophylaxis in eclampsia, but is contraindicated in women with myasthenia gravis.
  • Answer: True
  1. The use of syntocinon (oxytocin) is safe in all cases of obstructed labour.
  • Answer: False
  1. Intrauterine pressure catheters can be used to assess the adequacy of uterine contractions in women with ruptured membranes.
  • Answer: True
  1. A Bishop score of 3 indicates a favourable cervix for induction.
  • Answer: False
  1. Uterine inversion is most commonly associated with excessive cord traction during the third stage.
  • Answer: True
  • Answer:
    1. Retained products of conception
    2. Infection (endometritis)
    3. Subinvolution of the uterus
    4. Coagulation disorders
  1. List three contraindications to vaginal delivery after caesarean section (VBAC).
  • Answer:
  1. Previous classical caesarean section
  2. Previous uterine rupture
  3. Placenta praevia
  4. Name three components of the active management of the third stage of labour.
  • Answer:
  1. Administration of uterotonic drugs
  2. Controlled cord traction
  3. Uterine massage after placental delivery
  4. Enumerate three complications of preterm premature rupture of membranes (PPROM).
  • Answer:
  1. Chorioamnionitis
  2. Preterm birth
  3. Cord prolapse
  4. List two indications for continuous electronic foetal monitoring in labour.
  • Answer:
  1. Suspected foetal compromise
  2. Maternal medical conditions (e.g., diabetes, hypertension)

Multiple Choice

  1. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for a woman with a history of two previous caesarean sections presenting in early labour?
  • a) Trial of labour
  • b) Elective caesarean section
  • c) Induction with prostaglandins
  • d) Expectant management Answer: b) Elective caesarean section
  1. What is the most likely cause of a sudden drop in foetal heart rate following artificial rupture of membranes in a woman with a high presenting part?
  • a) Placental abruption
  • b) Cord prolapse
  • c) Uterine rupture
  • d) Maternal hypotension Answer: b) Cord prolapse
  1. Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line management for uterine atony after delivery?
  • a) Immediate hysterectomy
  • b) Uterine massage and oxytocin
  • c) Blood transfusion
  • d) Manual removal of the placenta Answer: b) Uterine massage and oxytocin
  1. A woman develops fever, uterine tenderness, and foul-smelling lochia two days postpartum. The most likely diagnosis is:
  • a) Endometritis
  • b) Mastitis
  • c) Urinary tract infection
  • d) Septic abortion Answer: a) Endometritis
  1. What is the first sign of magnesium sulphate toxicity?
  • a) Respiratory depression
  • b) Loss of deep tendon reflexes
  • c) Cardiac arrest
  • d) Visual disturbances Answer: b) Loss of deep tendon reflexes

True or False

  1. The use of vacuum extraction is contraindicated before 34 weeks of gestation.
  • Answer: True
  1. Shoulder dystocia is more common in diabetic mothers.
    • Answer: True
  2. The presence of a compound presentation always requires caesarean section.
    • Answer: False
  3. The risk of uterine rupture is higher with induction of labour in women with previous caesarean section.
    • Answer: True
  4. Delayed cord clamping increases the risk of neonatal polycythaemia.
    • Answer: True

Identification

  1. Name the test used to detect foetal blood in maternal vaginal bleeding.
    • Answer: Kleihauer-Betke test
  2. What is the term for a foetal head that fails to descend despite adequate contractions and full cervical dilation?
    • Answer: Obstructed labour
  3. What is the name of the scoring system used to evaluate the severity of perineal tears?
    • Answer: Sultan classification (or Degrees of perineal tear)
  4. What is the term for the delivery of the foetus through a vertical incision in the upper uterine segment?
    • Answer: Classical caesarean section
  5. What is the recommended initial dose of oxytocin for active management of the third stage of labour (IV or IM)?
    • Answer: 10 IU

Advanced Labour and Delivery: Additional

50-Item Question and Answer Set

Multiple Choice

  1. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of prostaglandin E2 in labour induction?
    • a) Stimulates uterine smooth muscle contraction via calcium influx
    • b) Inhibits oxytocin receptors
    • c) Causes cervical collagen breakdown and softening
    • d) Blocks beta-adrenergic receptors Answer: c) Causes cervical collagen breakdown and softening
  2. What is the most common cause of foetal tachycardia during labour?
    • a) Foetal hypoxia
    • b) Maternal fever
    • c) Umbilical cord compression
    • d) Foetal bradycardia Answer: b) Maternal fever
  3. Which of the following is the primary indication for a classical caesarean section?
    • a) Placenta praevia
    • b) Breech presentation
    • c) Foetal macrosomia
    • d) Previous low transverse caesarean section Answer: a) Placenta praevia
  4. What is the ideal timing for administration of antenatal corticosteroids to enhance foetal lung maturity?
    • a) 12–24 hours before delivery
    • b) 24–48 hours before delivery
    • c) Immediately after rupture of membranes
    • d) After 37 weeks gestation Answer: b) 24–48 hours before delivery
  1. The term “caput succedaneum” refers to subperiosteal haemorrhage of the foetal scalp.
    • Answer: False (It is oedema, not haemorrhage)
  2. The presence of a single umbilical artery is associated with increased risk of congenital anomalies.
    • Answer: True
  3. Amniotomy is contraindicated in women with HIV due to risk of vertical transmission.
    • Answer: False

Select All That Apply

  1. Risk factors for shoulder dystocia include:
    • a) Maternal diabetes
    • b) Foetal macrosomia
    • c) Prolonged second stage
    • d) Breech presentation Answer: a, b, c
  2. Which of the following are components of the APGAR score?
    • a) Heart rate
    • b) Muscle tone
    • c) Respiratory effort
    • d) Blood glucose Answer: a, b, c
  3. Which of the following are common causes of prolonged labour?
    • a) Cephalopelvic disproportion
    • b) Ineffective uterine contractions
    • c) Malpresentation
    • d) Maternal hypotension Answer: a, b, c
  4. Which of the following are contraindications for vaginal birth after caesarean section (VBAC)?
    • a) Previous classical caesarean section
    • b) Placenta accreta
      • c) Multiple previous caesarean sections
      • d) Previous vaginal delivery Answer: a, b, c
  5. Which of the following are signs of foetal distress on cardiotocography (CTG)?
  • a) Late decelerations
  • b) Reduced baseline variability
  • c) Early decelerations
  • d) Prolonged bradycardia Answer: a, b, d

Identification

  1. Name the manoeuvre used to reduce foetal head trauma during instrumental delivery.
  • Answer: Ritgen manoeuvre
  1. What is the term for the abnormal implantation of the placenta over the cervical os?
  • Answer: Placenta praevia
  1. What is the name of the uterotonic drug contraindicated in hypertension?
  • Answer: Ergometrine
  1. What is the term for the presence of blood in the amniotic fluid?
  • Answer: Haemorrhagic amniotic fluid
  1. What is the name of the procedure to surgically widen the vaginal opening during delivery?
  • Answer: Episiotomy

Enumeration

  1. Enumerate four clinical features of uterine rupture.
  • Answer:
  1. Sudden abdominal pain
  2. Loss of contractions
  3. Foetal distress (bradycardia)
  1. Vaginal bleeding
  2. List three maternal complications of prolonged labour.
  • Answer:
  1. Infection (chorioamnionitis)
  2. Postpartum haemorrhage
  3. Uterine rupture
  4. Name four indications for induction of labour.
  • Answer:
  1. Post-term pregnancy
  2. Pre-eclampsia
  3. Oligohydramnios
  4. Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)
  5. Enumerate three types of perineal tears.
  • Answer:
  1. First degree (skin only)
  2. Second degree (skin and muscles)
  3. Third degree (involving anal sphincter)
  4. List three causes of foetal bradycardia.
  • Answer:
  1. Umbilical cord compression
  2. Maternal hypotension
  3. Foetal hypoxia

Multiple Choice

  1. Which of the following best describes the management of retained placenta?
  • a) Immediate manual removal without anaesthesia
  • b) Controlled cord traction with uterine massage
  • c) Wait for spontaneous delivery for up to 6 hours
  • d) Immediate hysterectomy Answer: b) Controlled cord traction with uterine massage
  1. Which of the following is the most common cause of foetal hypoxia during labour?
  • a) Maternal hypotension
  • b) Umbilical cord compression
  • c) Placental abruption
  • d) Maternal hypoxia Answer: b) Umbilical cord compression
  1. What is the primary purpose of administering magnesium sulphate in pre-eclampsia?
  • a) Lower blood pressure
  • b) Prevent seizures
  • c) Induce labour
  • d) Treat infection Answer: b) Prevent seizures
  1. Which of the following is a contraindication to the use of prostaglandin F2 alpha (carboprost) in postpartum haemorrhage?
  • a) Asthma
  • b) Hypertension
  • c) Diabetes
  • d) Anaemia Answer: a) Asthma
  1. What is the most appropriate next step if a woman in labour develops a persistent foetal bradycardia?
  • a) Continue monitoring
  • b) Immediate intrauterine resuscitation and prepare for delivery
  • c) Administer tocolytics
  • d) Perform amniotomy Answer: b) Immediate intrauterine resuscitation and prepare for delivery

True or False

  1. The presence of a posterior placenta increases the risk of postpartum haemorrhage.
  • Answer: False
  1. Which of the following is NOT a recommended pain relief option during labour?
    • A. Epidural analgesia
    • B. Paracetamol
    • C. General anaesthesia for normal vaginal delivery
    • D. Nitrous oxide Answer: C
  2. The third stage of labour involves:
    • A. Cervical effacement
    • B. Delivery of the fetus
    • C. Delivery of the placenta
    • D. Rupture of membranes Answer: C
  3. Which intervention is commonly used to actively manage the third stage of labour?
    • A. Administration of oxytocin
    • B. Induction of labour
    • C. Amniotomy
    • D. External cephalic version Answer: A
  4. What is the normal range for the duration of the third stage of labour?
    • A. 1-5 minutes
    • B. 5-10 minutes
    • C. 10-30 minutes
    • D. 30-60 minutes Answer: C
  5. Which of the following is a potential complication during the second stage of labour?
    • A. Shoulder dystocia
    • B. Placental abruption
    • C. Hyperemesis gravidarum
    • D. Eclampsia Answer: A True or False
    1. The presence of a mucus plug always indicates the immediate onset of labour. Answer: False[2]
    2. Labour can start as early as 37 weeks of pregnancy and still be considered term. Answer: True[9]
    3. The use of a partograph is recommended to monitor the progress of labour. Answer: True[4]
    4. A slower rate of cervical dilation alone should not automatically prompt intervention. Answer: True[4]
    5. The delivery of the placenta marks the end of the second stage of labour. Answer: False (It marks the end of the third stage)[10]
    6. Epidural analgesia is the only method of pain relief available during labour. Answer: False
    7. Continuous support during labour can improve outcomes for both mother and baby. Answer: True[6][7]
    8. The second stage of labour is always less than one hour in duration. Answer: False[10]
    9. Preterm labour refers to labour that begins before 37 weeks of pregnancy. Answer: True[9]
    10. The placenta should always be delivered within 10 minutes of the baby’s birth. Answer: False[10] Identification
    11. Name the three stages of labour.

Answer: First stage (cervical dilation), second stage (delivery of baby), third stage (delivery of placenta)[10]

  1. What is the term for the softening and thinning of the cervix? Answer: Effacement[9]
  2. What is the medical term for the surgical delivery of a baby? Answer: Caesarean section
  3. What is the name of the hormone that triggers uterine contractions? Answer: Oxytocin
  4. What is the instrument used to monitor fetal heart rate during labour? Answer: Fetal Doppler or cardiotocograph (CTG)
  5. What is the term for the breaking of the amniotic sac? Answer: Rupture of membranes
  6. What is the recommended position for a woman during the second stage of labour? Answer: Upright, lateral, or whatever is comfortable for the woman[6]
  7. What is the name of the chart used to document the progress of labour? Answer: Partograph[4]
  8. What is the most common cause of postpartum haemorrhage? Answer: Uterine atony
  9. What is the term for the first stool passed by the newborn? Answer: Meconium Select All That Apply
    1. Which of the following are signs of true labour? (Select all that apply)
    • A. Regular contractions
    • B. Cervical dilation
    • C. Pain relieved by walking
    • D. Rupture of membranes Answer: A, B, D
    1. Which interventions may be used to induce labour? (Select all that apply)
    • A. Oxytocin infusion
    • B. Amniotomy
    • C. Bed rest
    • D. Prostaglandins Answer: A, B, D
    1. Which of the following are risk factors for preterm labour? (Select all that apply)
    • A. Multiple pregnancy
    • B. Urinary tract infection
    • C. Hypertension
    • D. Previous preterm birth Answer: A, B, D
    1. Which of the following are components of the Apgar score? (Select all that apply)
    • A. Heart rate
    • B. Respiratory effort
    • C. Skin colour
    • D. Blood pressure Answer: A, B, C
    1. Which are common emotions experienced by women during labour? (Select all that apply)
    • A. Anxiety
    • B. Excitement
    • C. Fear
    • D. Indifference Answer: A, B, C Enumeration
    1. List two non-pharmacological methods for pain relief during labour.

Multiple Choice Questions

(15 items)

  1. What is the normal duration of the first stage of labor for a primipara? a. 4-6 hours b. 8-10 hours c. 12-14 hours d. 16-18 hours Answer: c
  2. Which of the following hormones initiates labor? a. Progesterone b. Oxytocin c. Estrogen d. Relaxin Answer: b
  3. The ideal fetal presentation for vaginal delivery is: a. Breech b. Transverse c. Cephalic d. Compound Answer: c
  4. Which pelvic type is most favorable for vaginal delivery? a. Android b. Gynecoid c. Anthropoid d. Platypelloid Answer: b
  5. What is the most common indication for a cesarean section? a. Prolonged labor b. Fetal distress c. Breech presentation d. Placenta previa Answer: b 6. The second stage of labor begins with full cervical dilation and ends with: a. Delivery of the placenta b. Crowning c. Delivery of the baby d. Rupture of membranes Answer: c 7. The term "lightening" refers to: a. Onset of true labor b. Descent of the fetus into the pelvis c. Rupture of membranes d. Effacement of the cervix Answer: b 8. What is a normal fetal heart rate during labor? a. 80-100 bpm b. 110-160 bpm c. 170-200 bpm d. 200-220 bpm Answer: b 9. Which of the following is an early sign of labor? a. Rupture of membranes b. Loss of appetite c. Bloody show d. Intense contractions every 5 minutes Answer: c 10. What is the purpose of Leopold’s maneuvers? a. Assess cervical dilation b. Determine fetal position and presentation c. Measure fundal height d. Assess fetal heart tones Answer: b 11. During labor, deceleration of the fetal heart rate may indicate: a. Normal variability b. Uteroplacental insufficiency

c. Maternal hypotension d. All of the above Answer: d

  1. The third stage of labor is also known as: a. The pushing stage b. The placental stage c. The transition phase d. The recovery stage Answer: b
  2. Which of the following medications is commonly used to prevent postpartum hemorrhage? a. Magnesium sulfate b. Oxytocin c. Terbutaline d. Nifedipine Answer: b
  3. Fetal station refers to: a. Position of the baby’s head in the pelvis b. Degree of cervical dilation c. Thickness of the cervix d. Fetal engagement Answer: a
  4. Which complication is associated with prolonged rupture of membranes? a. Preterm labor b. Infection c. Postpartum hemorrhage d. Fetal malpresentation Answer: b

True or False (10 items)

  1. The transition phase of labor is the shortest yet most intense part of the first stage of labor. Answer: True
  2. A bishop score below 6 indicates a favorable cervix for labor induction. Answer: False
  3. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid is a normal finding during labor. Answer: False
  4. The APGAR score is assessed at 1 minute and 5 minutes after birth. Answer: True
  5. Effacement refers to the opening of the cervix. Answer: False
  6. External fetal monitoring measures uterine contractions. Answer: True
  7. Epidural anesthesia increases the risk of maternal hypotension. Answer: True
  8. Shoulder dystocia occurs when the baby’s head is too large for the birth canal. Answer: False
  9. Lochia rubra is expected during the first few days postpartum. Answer: True
  10. A prolapsed umbilical cord is a non-emergency situation. Answer: False

Identification (10 items)

a. Hypotension b. Fetal bradycardia c. Spinal headache d. Urinary retention Answer: a, c, d

  1. Indications for labor induction include: a. Post-term pregnancy b. Preterm labor c. Oligohydramnios d. Preeclampsia Answer: a, c, d
  2. Non-pharmacologic pain relief during labor includes: a. Breathing techniques b. Hydrotherapy c. Epidural anesthesia d. Massage Answer: a, b, d
  3. Interventions for fetal distress include: a. Repositioning the mother b. Administering oxygen c. Increasing oxytocin d. Discontinuing oxytocin Answer: a, b, d
  4. Maternal assessments during labor include: a. Blood pressure b. Contraction patterns c. Cervical dilation d. Fundal height Answer: a, b, c

Enumeration (5 items)

  1. Enumerate the stages of labor. Answer:
    1. First stage: Latent, active, and transition phases
    2. Second stage: Pushing and delivery
    3. Third stage: Delivery of placenta
    4. Fourth stage: Immediate postpartum recovery
  2. Enumerate five indications for cesarean delivery. Answer:
  3. Fetal distress
  4. Cephalopelvic disproportion
  5. Placenta previa
  6. Uterine rupture
  7. Active genital herpes
  8. Enumerate four signs of placental separation. Answer:
  9. Lengthening of the umbilical cord
  10. Gush of blood
  11. Uterus becomes firm
  12. Uterus rises in the abdomen
  13. Enumerate four nursing interventions for postpartum hemorrhage. Answer:
  14. Fundal massage
  15. Administering uterotonics
  16. Monitoring vital signs
  17. Ensuring IV access for fluid replacement
  18. Enumerate three types of lochia. Answer:
  19. Lochia rubra
  20. Lochia serosa
  21. Lochia alba —–––––—–––––—–––––—–––––—–––––—–

Multiple Choice Questions

(15 items)

  1. What is the primary goal of the "Unang Yakap" or Essential Newborn Care protocol? a. To reduce neonatal infections b. To promote breastfeeding c. To ensure the survival and health of newborns d. To prevent birth defects Answer: c
  2. Which of the following is the first step in the Essential Newborn Care protocol? a. Immediate breastfeeding b. Cord clamping and cutting c. Immediate and thorough drying d. Skin-to-skin contact Answer: c
  3. What is the recommended time for delayed cord clamping? a. At least 30 seconds after birth b. Immediately after birth c. After 1-3 minutes d. After 5 minutes Answer: c
  4. Skin-to-skin contact between the mother and baby should last for at least: a. 15 minutes b. 30 minutes c. 60 minutes d. 90 minutes Answer: c
  5. What is the first breastfeeding practice in Essential Newborn Care? a. Exclusive breastfeeding b. Rooming-in c. Early initiation of breastfeeding d. Breast milk expression Answer: c
  6. Essential Newborn Care aims to reduce deaths caused by: a. Neonatal sepsis b. Hypothermia c. Hypoglycemia d. All of the above Answer: d
  7. Which of the following is NOT part of the "Unang Yakap" protocol? a. Immediate drying b. Delayed bathing c. Routine suctioning d. Non-separation of mother and baby Answer: c
  8. What temperature range is considered normal for newborns? a. 35.5°C to 36.5°C b. 36.5°C to 37.5°C c. 37.0°C to 38.0°C d. 38.0°C to 39.0°C Answer: b
  9. Why is immediate drying important for newborns? a. To promote attachment b. To stimulate breathing c. To prevent hypothermia d. To ensure breastfeeding Answer: c
  10. Delayed bathing of the newborn is recommended to: a. Avoid hypothermia b. Prevent neonatal sepsis c. Promote absorption of vernix caseosa d. All of the above Answer: d