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HESI Pharmacology Spring 2025/26Test Bank(Latest Update):Expert Solved,>, Exams of Nursing

HESI Pharmacology Spring 2025/26Test Bank(Latest Update):Expert Solved,>HESI Pharmacology Spring 2025/26Test Bank(Latest Update):Expert Solved,>

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HESI Pharmacology Spring 2025/26Test Bank(Latest
Update):Expert Solved,>
1) A nurse is caring for a client with hyperparathyroidism and notes that the client's serum
calcium level is 13 mg/dL. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer as
prescribed to the client?
1. Calcium chloride
2. Calcium gluconate
3. Calcitonin (Miacalcin)
4. Large doses of vitamin D 3. Calcitonin (Miacalcin)
Rationale:
The normal serum calcium level is 8.6 to 10.0 mg/dL. This client is experiencing hypercalcemia.
Calcium gluconate and calcium chloride are medications used for the treatment of tetany,
which occurs as a result of acute hypocalcemia. In hypercalcemia, large doses of vitamin D
need to be avoided. Calcitonin, a thyroid hormone, decreases the plasma calcium level by
inhibiting bone resorption and lowering the serum calcium concentration.
10.) The clinic nurse is performing an admission assessment on a client. The nurse notes that
the client is taking azelaic acid (Azelex). Because of the medication prescription, the nurse
would suspect that the client is being treated for:
1. Acne
2. Eczema
3. Hair loss
4. Herpes simplex 1. Acne
Rationale:
Azelaic acid is a topical medication used to treat mild to moderate acne. The acid appears to
work by suppressing the growth of Propionibacterium acnes and decreasing the proliferation of
keratinocytes. Options 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect.
100.) Saquinavir (Invirase) is prescribed for the client who is human immunodeficiency virus
seropositive. The nurse reinforces medication instructions and tells the client to:
1. Avoid sun exposure.
2. Eat low-calorie foods.
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HESI Pharmacology Spring 2025/26Test Bank(Latest

Update):Expert Solved,>

  1. A nurse is caring for a client with hyperparathyroidism and notes that the client's serum calcium level is 13 mg/dL. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer as prescribed to the client?
  1. Calcium chloride
  2. Calcium gluconate
  3. Calcitonin (Miacalcin)
  4. Large doses of vitamin D 3. Calcitonin (Miacalcin) Rationale: The normal serum calcium level is 8.6 to 10.0 mg/dL. This client is experiencing hypercalcemia. Calcium gluconate and calcium chloride are medications used for the treatment of tetany, which occurs as a result of acute hypocalcemia. In hypercalcemia, large doses of vitamin D need to be avoided. Calcitonin, a thyroid hormone, decreases the plasma calcium level by inhibiting bone resorption and lowering the serum calcium concentration. 10.) The clinic nurse is performing an admission assessment on a client. The nurse notes that the client is taking azelaic acid (Azelex). Because of the medication prescription, the nurse would suspect that the client is being treated for:
  5. Acne
  6. Eczema
  7. Hair loss
  8. Herpes simplex 1. Acne Rationale: Azelaic acid is a topical medication used to treat mild to moderate acne. The acid appears to work by suppressing the growth of Propionibacterium acnes and decreasing the proliferation of keratinocytes. Options 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect. 100.) Saquinavir (Invirase) is prescribed for the client who is human immunodeficiency virus seropositive. The nurse reinforces medication instructions and tells the client to:
  9. Avoid sun exposure.
  10. Eat low-calorie foods.
  1. Eat foods that are low in fat.

Rationale: Saquinavir (Invirase) is an antiretroviral (protease inhibitor) used with other antiretroviral medications to manage human immunodeficiency virus infection. Saquinavir is administered with meals and is best absorbed if the client consumes high-calorie, high-fat meals. Saquinavir can cause photosensitivity, and the nurse should instruct the client to avoid sun exposure. 101.) Ketoconazole is prescribed for a client with a diagnosis of candidiasis. Select the interventions that the nurse includes when administering this medication. Select all that apply.

  1. Restrict fluid intake.
  2. Instruct the client to avoid alcohol.
  3. Monitor hepatic and liver function studies.
  4. Administer the medication with an antacid.
  5. Instruct the client to avoid exposure to the sun.
  6. Administer the medication on an empty stomach. 2. Instruct the client to avoid alcohol.
  7. Monitor hepatic and liver function studies.
  8. Instruct the client to avoid exposure to the sun. Rationale: Ketoconazole is an antifungal medication. It is administered with food (not on an empty stomach) and antacids are avoided for 2 hours after taking the medication to ensure absorption. The medication is hepatotoxic and the nurse monitors liver function studies. The client is instructed to avoid exposure to the sun because the medication increases photosensitivity. The client is also instructed to avoid alcohol. There is no reason for the client to restrict fluid intake. In fact, this could be harmful to the client. 102.) A client with human immunodeficiency virus is taking nevirapine (Viramune). The nurse should monitor for which adverse effects of the medication? Select all that apply.
  9. Rash
  10. Hepatotoxicity
  11. Hyperglycemia
  12. Peripheral neuropathy
  13. Reduced bone mineral density 1. Rash
  1. Hepatotoxicity Rationale: Nevirapine (Viramune) is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI) that is used to treat HIV infection. It is used in combination with other antiretroviral medications to treat HIV. Adverse effects include rash, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, hepatitis, and increased transaminase levels. Hyperglycemia, peripheral neuropathy, and reduced bone density are not adverse effects of this medication. 103.) A nurse is caring for a hospitalized client who has been taking clozapine (Clozaril) for the treatment of a schizophrenic disorder. Which laboratory study prescribed for the client will the nurse specifically review to monitor for an adverse effect associated with the use of this medication?

  2. Platelet count

  3. Cholesterol level

  4. White blood cell count

  5. Blood urea nitrogen level 3. White blood cell count Rationale: Hematological reactions can occur in the client taking clozapine and include agranulocytosis and mild leukopenia. The white blood cell count should be checked before initiating treatment and should be monitored closely during the use of this medication. The client should also be monitored for signs indicating agranulocytosis, which may include sore throat, malaise, and fever. Options 1, 2, and 4 are unrelated to this medication. 104.) Disulfiram (Antabuse) is prescribed for a client who is seen in the psychiatric health care clinic. The nurse is collecting data on the client and is providing instructions regarding the use of this medication. Which is most important for the nurse to determine before administration of this medication?

  6. A history of hyperthyroidism

  7. A history of diabetes insipidus

  8. When the last full meal was consumed

  9. When the last alcoholic drink was consumed 4. When the last alcoholic drink was consumed Rationale: Disulfiram is used as an adjunct treatment for selected clients with chronic alcoholism who want

observation indicates that the client is correctly following the medication plan?

  1. Reports not going to work for this past week
  2. Complains of not being able to "do anything" anymore
  3. Arrives at the clinic neat and appropriate in appearance
  4. Reports sleeping 12 hours per night and 3 to 4 hours during the day 3. Arrives at the clinic neat and appropriate in appearance Rationale: Depressed individuals will sleep for long periods, are not able to go to work, and feel as if they cannot "do anything." Once they have had some therapeutic effect from their medication, they will report resolution of many of these complaints as well as demonstrate an improvement in their appearance. 108.) A nurse is performing a follow-up teaching session with a client discharged 1 month ago who is taking fluoxetine (Prozac). What information would be important for the nurse to gather regarding the adverse effects related to the medication?
  5. Cardiovascular symptoms
  6. Gastrointestinal dysfunctions
  7. Problems with mouth dryness
  8. Problems with excessive sweating 2. Gastrointestinal dysfunctions Rationale: The most common adverse effects related to fluoxetine include central nervous system (CNS) and gastrointestinal (GI) system dysfunction. This medication affects the GI system by causing nausea and vomiting, cramping, and diarrhea. Options 1, 3, and 4 are not adverse effects of this medication. 109.) A client taking buspirone (BuSpar) for 1 month returns to the clinic for a follow-up visit. Which of the following would indicate medication effectiveness?
  9. No rapid heartbeats or anxiety
  10. No paranoid thought processes
  11. No thought broadcasting or delusions
  12. No reports of alcohol withdrawal symptoms 1. No rapid heartbeats or anxiety

Rationale: Buspirone hydrochloride is not recommended for the treatment of drug or alcohol withdrawal, paranoid thought disorders, or schizophrenia (thought broadcasting or delusions). Buspirone hydrochloride is most often indicated for the treatment of anxiety and aggression. 11.) The health care provider has prescribed silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) for the client with a partial-thickness burn, which has cultured positive for gram-negative bacteria. The nurse is reinforcing information to the client about the medication. Which statement made by the client indicates a lack of understanding about the treatments?

  1. "The medication is an antibacterial."
  2. "The medication will help heal the burn."
  3. "The medication will permanently stain my skin."
  4. "The medication should be applied directly to the wound." 3. "The medication will permanently stain my skin." Rationale: Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) is an antibacterial that has a broad spectrum of activity against gram-negative bacteria, gram-positive bacteria, and yeast. It is applied directly to the wound to assist in healing. It does not stain the skin. 110.) A client taking lithium carbonate (Lithobid) reports vomiting, abdominal pain, diarrhea, blurred vision, tinnitus, and tremors. The lithium level is checked as a part of the routine follow- up and the level is 3.0 mEq/L. The nurse knows that this level is:
  5. Toxic
  6. Normal
  7. Slightly above normal
  8. Excessively below normal 1. Toxic Rationale: The therapeutic serum level of lithium is 0.6 to 1.2 mEq/L. A level of 3 mEq/L indicates toxicity. 111.) A client arrives at the health care clinic and tells the nurse that he has been doubling his daily dosage of bupropion hydrochloride (Wellbutrin) to help him get better faster. The nurse understands that the client is now at risk for which of the following?
  9. Insomnia

Maintain a high fluid intake. Rationale: Each dose of sulfisoxazole should be administered with a full glass of water, and the client should maintain a high fluid intake. The medication is more soluble in alkaline urine. The client should not be instructed to taper or discontinue the dose. Some forms of sulfisoxazole cause the urine to turn dark brown or red. This does not indicate the need to notify the health care provider. 114.) A postoperative client requests medication for flatulence (gas pains). Which medication from the following PRN list should the nurse administer to this client?

  1. Ondansetron (Zofran)
  2. Simethicone (Mylicon)
  3. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
  4. Magnesium hydroxide (milk of magnesia, MOM) 2. Simethicone (Mylicon) Rationale: Simethicone is an antiflatulent used in the relief of pain caused by excessive gas in the gastrointestinal tract. Ondansetron is used to treat postoperative nausea and vomiting. Acetaminophen is a nonopioid analgesic. Magnesium hydroxide is an antacid and laxative. 115.) A client received 20 units of NPH insulin subcutaneously at 8:00 AM. The nurse should check the client for a potential hypoglycemic reaction at what time?
  5. 5:00 PM
  6. 10:00 AM
  7. 11:00 AM
  8. 11:00 PM 1. 5:00 PM Rationale: NPH is intermediate-acting insulin. Its onset of action is 1 to 2½ hours, it peaks in 4 to 12 hours, and its duration of action is 24 hours. Hypoglycemic reactions most likely occur during peak time. 116.) A nurse administers a dose of scopolamine (Transderm-Scop) to a postoperative client. The nurse tells the client to expect which of the following side effects of this medication?
  9. Dry mouth
  10. Diaphoresis
  1. Excessive urination
  2. Pupillary constriction1. Dry mouth Rationale: Scopolamine is an anticholinergic medication for the prevention of nausea and vomiting that causes the frequent side effects of dry mouth, urinary retention, decreased sweating, and dilation of the pupils. The other options describe the opposite effects of cholinergic-blocking agents and therefore are incorrect. 117.) A nurse has given the client taking ethambutol (Myambutol) information about the medication. The nurse determines that the client understands the instructions if the client immediately reports:
  3. Impaired sense of hearing
  4. Distressing gastrointestinal side effects
  5. Orange-red discoloration of body secretions
  6. Difficulty discriminating the color red from green 4. Difficulty discriminating the color red from green Rationale: Ethambutol causes optic neuritis, which decreases visual acuity and the ability to discriminate between the colors red and green. This poses a potential safety hazard when driving a motor vehicle. The client is taught to report this symptom immediately. The client is also taught to take the medication with food if gastrointestinal upset occurs. Impaired hearing results from antitubercular therapy with streptomycin. Orange-red discoloration of secretions occurs with rifampin (Rifadin). 118.) A nurse is caring for an older client with a diagnosis of myasthenia gravis and has reinforced self-care instructions. Which statement by the client indicates that further teaching is necessary?
  7. "I rest each afternoon after my walk."
  8. "I cough and deep breathe many times during the day."
  9. "If I get abdominal cramps and diarrhea, I should call my doctor."
  10. "I can change the time of my medication on the mornings that I feel strong." 4. "I can change the time of my medication on the mornings that I feel strong." Rationale:

120.) A client is taking lansoprazole (Prevacid) for the chronic management of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. The nurse advises the client to take which of the following products if needed for a headache?

  1. Naprosyn (Aleve)
  2. Ibuprofen (Advil)
  3. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
  4. Acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin) 3. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) Rationale: Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is a hypersecretory condition of the stomach. The client should avoid taking medications that are irritating to the stomach lining. Irritants would include aspirin and nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (ibuprofen). The client should be advised to take acetaminophen for headache. Remember that options that are comparable or alike are not likely to be correct. With this in mind, eliminate options 1 and 2 first. 121.) A client who is taking hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL, HCTZ) has been started on triamterene (Dyrenium) as well. The client asks the nurse why both medications are required. The nurse formulates a response, based on the understanding that:
  5. Both are weak potassium-losing diuretics.
  6. The combination of these medications prevents renal toxicity.
  7. Hydrochlorothiazide is an expensive medication, so using a combination of diuretics is cost- effective.
  8. Triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic, whereas hydrochlorothiazide is a potassium- losing diuretic. 4. Triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic, whereas hydrochlorothiazide is a potassium-losing diuretic. Rationale: Potassium-sparing diuretics include amiloride (Midamor), spironolactone (Aldactone), and triamterene (Dyrenium). They are weak diuretics that are used in combination with potassium- losing diuretics. This combination is useful when medication and dietary supplement of potassium is not appropriate. The use of two different diuretics does not prevent renal toxicity. Hydrochlorothiazide is an effective and inexpensive generic form of the thiazide classification of diuretics. **It is especially helpful to remember that hydrochlorothiazide is a potassium-losing diuretic and

triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic** 122.) A client who has begun taking fosinopril (Monopril) is very distressed, telling the nurse that he cannot taste food normally since beginning the medication 2 weeks ago. The nurse provides the best support to the client by:

  1. Telling the client not to take the medication with food
  2. Suggesting that the client taper the dose until taste returns to normal
  3. Informing the client that impaired taste is expected and generally disappears in 2 to 3 months
  4. Requesting that the health care provider (HCP) change the prescription to another brand of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor 3. Informing the client that impaired taste is expected and generally disappears in 2 to 3 months Rationale: ACE inhibitors, such as fosinopril, cause temporary impairment of taste (dysgeusia). The nurse can tell the client that this effect usually disappears in 2 to 3 months, even with continued therapy, and provide nutritional counseling if appropriate to avoid weight loss. Options 1, 2, and 4 are inappropriate actions. Taking this medication with or without food does not affect absorption and action. The dosage should never be tapered without HCP approval and the medication should never be stopped abruptly. 123.) A nurse is planning to administer amlodipine (Norvasc) to a client. The nurse plans to check which of the following before giving the medication?
  5. Respiratory rate
  6. Blood pressure and heart rate
  7. Heart rate and respiratory rate
  8. Level of consciousness and blood pressure 2. Blood pressure and heart rate Rationale: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker. This medication decreases the rate and force of cardiac contraction. Before administering a calcium channel blocking agent, the nurse should check the blood pressure and heart rate, which could both decrease in response to the action of this medication. This action will help to prevent or identify early problems related to decreased cardiac contractility, heart rate, and conduction. amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker, and this group of medications decreases the rate and force of cardiac contraction. This in turn lowers the pulse rate and blood pressure.
  1. Hypotension
  2. Hypokalemia
  3. Photosensitivity
  4. Increased urinary frequency 2. Tinnitus
  5. Hypotension
  6. Hypokalemia Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic; therefore, an expected effect is increased urinary frequency. Nausea is a frequent side effect, not an adverse effect. Photosensitivity is an occasional side effect. Adverse effects include tinnitus (ototoxicity), hypotension, and hypokalemia and occur as a result of sudden volume depletion. 127.) The nurse provides medication instructions to an older hypertensive client who is taking 20 mg of lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril) orally daily. The nurse evaluates the need for further teaching when the client states which of the following?
  7. "I can skip a dose once a week."
  8. "I need to change my position slowly."
  9. "I take the pill after breakfast each day."
  10. "If I get a bad headache, I should call my doctor immediately." 1. "I can skip a dose once a week." Rationale: Lisinopril is an antihypertensive angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. The usual dosage range is 20 to 40 mg per day. Adverse effects include headache, dizziness, fatigue, orthostatic hypotension, tachycardia, and angioedema. Specific client teaching points include taking one pill a day, not stopping the medication without consulting the health care provider (HCP), and monitoring for side effects and adverse reactions. The client should notify the HCP if side effects occur. 128.) A nurse is providing instructions to an adolescent who has a history of seizures and is taking an anticonvulsant medication. Which of the following statements indicates that the client understands the instructions?
  11. "I will never be able to drive a car."
  12. "My anticonvulsant medication will clear up my skin."
  1. "I can't drink alcohol while I am taking my medication."
  2. "If I forget my morning medication, I can take two pills at bedtime." 3. "I can't drink alcohol while I am taking my medication." Rationale: Alcohol will lower the seizure threshold and should be avoided. Adolescents can obtain a driver's license in most states when they have been seizure free for 1 year. Anticonvulsants cause acne and oily skin; therefore a dermatologist may need to be consulted. If an anticonvulsant medication is missed, the health care provider should be notified. 129.) Megestrol acetate (Megace), an antineoplastic medication, is prescribed for the client with metastatic endometrial carcinoma. The nurse reviews the client's history and contacts the registered nurse if which diagnosis is documented in the client's history?
  3. Gout
  4. Asthma
  5. Thrombophlebitis
  6. Myocardial infarction 3. Thrombophlebitis Rationale: Megestrol acetate (Megace) suppresses the release of luteinizing hormone from the anterior pituitary by inhibiting pituitary function and regressing tumor size. Megestrol is used with caution if the client has a history of thrombophlebitis. megestrol acetate is a hormonal antagonist enzyme and that a side effect is thrombotic disorders 13.) The client with squamous cell carcinoma of the larynx is receiving bleomycin intravenously. The nurse caring for the client anticipates that which diagnostic study will be prescribed?
  7. Echocardiography
  8. Electrocardiography
  9. Cervical radiography
  10. Pulmonary function studies 4. Pulmonary function studies Rationale: Bleomycin is an antineoplastic medication (Chemotheraputic Agents) that can cause interstitial pneumonitis, which can progress to pulmonary fibrosis. Pulmonary function studies along with
  1. Fever
  2. Diarrhea
  3. Complaints of nausea and vomiting
  4. Crackles on auscultation of the lungs 4. Crackles on auscultation of the lungs Rationale: Cardiotoxicity noted by abnormal electrocardiographic findings or cardiomyopathy manifested as congestive heart failure is a toxic effect of daunorubicin. Bone marrow depression is also a toxic effect. Nausea and vomiting are frequent side effects associated with the medication that begins a few hours after administration and lasts 24 to 48 hours. Fever is a frequent side effect, and diarrhea can occur occasionally. The other options, however, are not toxic effects. keep in mind that the question is asking about a toxic effect and think: ABCs—airway, breathing, and circulation 133.) A nurse is monitoring a client receiving desmopressin acetate (DDAVP) for adverse effects to the medication. Which of the following indicates the presence of an adverse effect?
  5. Insomnia
  6. Drowsiness
  7. Weight loss
  8. Increased urination 2. Drowsiness Rationale: Water intoxication (overhydration) or hyponatremia is an adverse effect to desmopressin. Early signs include drowsiness, listlessness, and headache. Decreased urination, rapid weight gain, confusion, seizures, and coma also may occur in overhydration. Recall that this medication is used to treat diabetes insipidus to eliminate weight loss and increased urination. 134.) A nurse reinforces instructions to a client who is taking levothyroxine (Synthroid). The nurse tells the client to take the medication:
  9. With food
  10. At lunchtime
  11. On an empty stomach
  1. At bedtime with a snack Rationale: Oral doses of levothyroxine (Synthroid) should be taken on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. Dosing should be done in the morning before breakfast. Note that options 1, 2, and 4 are comparable or alike in that these options address administering the medication with food. 135.) A nurse reinforces medication instructions to a client who is taking levothyroxine (Synthroid). The nurse instructs the client to notify the health care provider (HCP) if which of the following occurs?
  2. Fatigue
  3. Tremors
  4. Cold intolerance
  5. Excessively dry skin 2. Tremors Rationale: Excessive doses of levothyroxine (Synthroid) can produce signs and symptoms of hyperthyroidism. These include tachycardia, chest pain, tremors, nervousness, insomnia, hyperthermia, heat intolerance, and sweating. The client should be instructed to notify the HCP if these occur. Options 1, 3, and 4 are signs of hypothyroidism. 136.) A nurse performs an admission assessment on a client who visits a health care clinic for the first time. The client tells the nurse that propylthiouracil (PTU) is taken daily. The nurse continues to collect data from the client, suspecting that the client has a history of:
  6. Myxedema
  7. Graves' disease
  8. Addison's disease
  9. Cushing's syndrome 2. Graves' disease Rationale: PTU inhibits thyroid hormone synthesis and is used to treat hyperthyroidism, or Graves' disease. Myxedema indicates hypothyroidism. Cushing's syndrome and Addison's disease are disorders related to adrenal function. 137.) A nurse is reinforcing instructions for a client regarding intranasal desmopressin acetate (DDAVP). The nurse tells the client that which of the following is a side effect of the medication?