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NUR 425 EXAM 1 QUESTIONS WITH
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS.
Which patient is most at risk for developing delirium? a. A 50-yr-old woman with cholecystitis b. A 19-yr-old man with a fractured femur c. A 42-yr-old woman having an elective hysterectomy d. A 78-yr-old man admitted to the medical unit with complications related to heart failure - ANSWER- D You are caring for a patient who is experiencing delirium due to a lack of sleep. Which of the following nursing interventions would be inappropriate in treating this patients' condition? a. You treat the patients' primary diagnosis that is causing the delirium. b. You turn on the lights and a radio next to the patients' bed to reorient them. c. You use appropriate touch and verbal communication to help reorient the patient. d. You put an easy-to-read clock in the patients' room and a calendar close to their bed.
- ANSWER- B (For treating delirium, the nurse should reduce environmental stimuli by decreasing noise and light levels.) Normal Potassium level - ANSWER- 3.5-5. Normal PR interval length - ANSWER- <0.2 seconds Normal QRS interval length - ANSWER- <0.12 seconds Normal CVP (Central venous pressure) in adults - ANSWER- 2 - 8 mmHg Normal cardiac output in adults - ANSWER- 4 - 8 L/min Normal cardiac index in adults - ANSWER- 2.2-4 L/min/m squared Normal MAP in adults - ANSWER- 70 - 105 mmHg The action of medication is inotropic when it: A. Decreased afterload B. Increases heart rate C. Increases the force of contraction D. Is used to treat CHF - ANSWER- C (Inotropic drugs increase the force of contraction. Preload, not afterload, is decreased. Chronotropic drugs increase heart rate. Treatment of CHF is an indication for use not an action of inotropic drug.)
Which of the following ECG findings alerts the nurse that the client needs an antiarrhythmic? A. Normal sinus rhythm B. Sinus bradycardia C. Sinus arrhythmia D. Frequent ventricular ectopy - ANSWER- D (Ventricular ectopy can be a life- threatening arrhythmia; therefore, the client needs an arrhythmic. Other choices are not arrhythmias that need to be treated. An ectopic rhythm is an irregular heart rhythm due to a premature heartbeat. Ectopic rhythm is also known as premature atrial contraction, premature ventricular contraction, and extrasystole. When your heart experiences an early beat, a brief pause usually follows.) When administering an antiarrhythmic agent, which of the following assessment parameters is the most important for the nurse to evaluate? A. ECG B. Pulse rate C. Respiratory rate D. Blood pressure - ANSWER- A (The ECG is the most important parameter to assess. B, C, and D need to be monitored, but the ECG is the most important.) Epinephrine is used to treat cardiac arrest and status asthmaticus because of which of the following actions? A. Increased speed of conduction and gluconeogenesis B. Bronchodilation and increased heart rate, contractility, and conduction C. Increased vasodilation and enhanced myocardial contractility D. Bronchoconstriction and increased heart rate - ANSWER- B (Bronchodilation results from stimulated beta receptors, and cardiac effects result from the stimulation of ß receptors. Choice A does not address respiratory effects of medication. Choice C is incorrect because α-stimulating drugs cause vasoconstriction. Bronchodilation, not bronchoconstriction, results from ß2 activity.) Following norepinephrine (Levophed) administration, it is essential to the nurse to assess: A. electrolyte status B. color and temperature of toes and fingers C. capillary refill D. ventricular arrhythmias - ANSWER- B (Because decreased perfusion is a side effect of norepinephrine (Levophed), the nurse must check circulation frequently. Capillary refill is not a reliable indication of perfusion in a shock state. Choices A and D are not specific for norepinephrine.) When administering dopamine (Intropin), it is most important for the nurse to know that: A. the drug's action varies according to the dose.
when the pain begins to subside. Adequate dosing is important; however, the concept of controlled dosing applies more to potent vasoactive drugs.) For a cognitively impaired client who cannot accurately report pain, what is the first action that you should take? A. Closely assess for nonverbal signs such as grimacing or rocking. B. Obtain baseline behavioral indicators from family members. C. Look at the MAR and chart, to note the time of the last dose and response. D. Give the maximum PRS dose within the minimum time frame for relief. - ANSWER- B (Complete information from the family should be obtained during the initial comprehensive history and assessment. If this information is not obtained, the nursing staff will have to rely on observation of nonverbal behavior and careful documentation to determine pain and relief patterns.) A nurse is assessing an electrocardiogram rhythm strip. The P waves and QRS complexes are regular. The PR interval is 0.16 second, and QRS complexes measure 0.06 second. The overall heart rate is 64 beats per minute. The nurse assesses the cardiac rhythm as: A. Normal sinus rhythm B. Sinus bradycardia C. Atrial fibrillation D. First-degree heart block. - ANSWER- A (This rhythm is NSR. The P waves and QRS complexes are regular. The PR interval is less than 0.2 seconds. The QRS complex is less than 0.12 seconds. The heart rate is between 60-100 BPM.) A nurse notices frequent artifact on the ECG monitor for a client whose leads are connected by cable to a console at the bedside. The nurse examines the client to determine the cause. Which of the following items is unlikely to be responsible for the artifact? A. Frequent movement of the client B. Tightly secured cable connections C. Leads applied over hairy areas D. Leads applied to the limbs - ANSWER- B (Motion artifact, or "noise," can be caused by frequent client movement, electrode placement on limbs, and insufficient adhesion to the skin, such as placing electrodes over hairy areas of the skin. Electrode placement over bony prominences also should be avoided. Signal interference can also occur with electrode removal and cable disconnection.) A nurse is watching the cardiac monitor and notices that the rhythm suddenly changes. There are no P waves, the QRS complexes are wide, and the ventricular rate is regular but over 100. The nurse determines that the client is experiencing: A. Premature ventricular contractions B. Ventricular tachycardia C. Ventricular fibrillation
D. Sinus tachycardia - ANSWER- B (Ventricular tachycardia is characterized by the absence of P waves, wide QRS complexes (usually greater than 0.14 second), and a rate between 100 and 250 impulses per minute. The rhythm is usually regular.) A nurse is viewing the cardiac monitor in a client's room and notes that the client has just gone into ventricular tachycardia. The client is awake and alert and has good skin color. The nurse would prepare to do which of the following? A. Immediately defibrillate B. Prepare for pacemaker insertion C. Administer amiodarone (Cordarone) intravenously D. Administer epinephrine (Adrenaline) intravenously - ANSWER- C (First-line treatment of ventricular tachycardia in a client who is hemodynamically stable is the use of anti- dysrhythmics such as amiodarone (Cordarone), lidocaine (Xylocaine), and procainamide (Pronestyl). Cardioversion also may be needed to correct the rhythm (cardioversion is recommended for stable ventricular tachycardia). Defibrillation is used with pulseless ventricular tachycardia. Epinephrine would stimulate and already excitable ventricle and is contraindicated.) A nurse is caring for a client with unstable ventricular tachycardia. The nurse instructs the client to do which of the following, if prescribed, during an episode of ventricular tachycardia? A. Breathe deeply, regularly, and easily B. Inhale deeply and cough forcefully every 1 to 3 seconds C. Lie down flat in bed D. Remove any metal jewelry - ANSWER- B (Cough cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) sometimes is used in the client with unstable ventricular tachycardia. The nurse tells the client to use cough CPR, if prescribed, by inhaling deeply and coughing forcefully every 1 to 3 seconds. Cough CPR may terminate the dysrhythmia or sustain the cerebral and coronary circulation for a short time until other measures can be implemented.) A client is having frequent premature ventricular contractions. A nurse would place priority on assessment of which of the following items? A. Blood pressure and peripheral perfusion B. Sensation of palpitations C. Causative factors such as caffeine D. Precipitating factors such as infection - ANSWER- A (Premature ventricular contractions can cause hemodynamic compromise. The shortened ventricular filling time with the ectopic beats leads to decreased stroke volume and, if frequent enough, to decreased cardiac output. The client may be asymptomatic or may feel palpitations. PVCs can be caused by cardiac disorders or by any number of physiological stressors, such as infection, illness, surgery, or trauma, and by the intake of caffeine, alcohol, or nicotine.) A client has developed atrial fibrillation, with a ventricular rate of 150 beats per minute. A nurse assesses the client for:
oxygen concentration should not be the nurse's first course of action; rather, the nurse should notify the physician promptly. Administering a prescribed analgesic would not decrease ventricular irritability.) You are caring for a patient following a motor vehicle accident in the Intensive Care Unit at your hospital. Which of the following would not be a primary concern for you in the critical care setting? a. The patients' sleep cycle may become disrupted in the ICU. b. The patient may develop dementia due to an altered sleep/wake cycle in the intensive care unit. c. The patient may develop anxiety due to the fear of being in a foreign environment, pain, or loss of control. d. The patients' communication skills are impaired due to possible sedation and endotracheal tubes. - ANSWER- B (B is incorrect because the patient will not develop dementia in the ICU, but they may develop delirium due to sedation and an altered sleep/wake cycle. A is true because sedatives disrupt a patients' sleep. In addition, there can be a lot of noise in the ICU from alarms, and the patient may need consistent assessments, even throughout the night which potentially could wake up the patient every time. C is correct because anxiety is common in an ICU patient--they are afraid because they don't know where they are, they're confused, the ICU is fast paced, they are out of control, and they may be in pain. D is correct because it is certainly possible that the patient will not be able to communicate to the nurse. The patient may be sedated so they are not awake and alert, and if they are sedated they will have an endotracheal tube so they will not be able to speak even if they are alert.) Which of the following would not be considered a cause of anxiety with the patient in an intensive care unit, according to the lecture? a. Fear b. Loss of control c. Mental health issues d. Pain e. Intense pace of the unit f. Foreign environment - ANSWER- C Which of the following would not be considered a cause of communication difficulties with the critical care patient, according to the lecture? a. Diuretics b. Sedatives c. Paralytics d. Endotracheal tubes e. Altered level of consciousness f. The patient's disease process - ANSWER- A (Diuretics unlikely would cause the patient to have difficulty communicating with the nurse, or vice versa.)
You are a nurse preceptor teaching several nursing students about the concept of delirium in the ICU. Which of the following statements made the student is a true statement about delirium? a. "Delirium is synonymous with dementia." b. "Delirium cannot be caused by medications." c. "Delirium is a chronic problem." d. "Delirium can be caused by sleep deprivation, sensory overload, anxiety, and disease processes." - ANSWER- D (D is correct because these are accurate causes of delirium. Sleep deprivation can make the patient very confused. Sedatives can cause delirium due to it altering their sleep-wake cycle. Invasive lines and tubes can cause a sensory overload in the patient. Hypoxia can also precipitate delirium. Delirium and dementia are completely different. Dementia is a chronic condition that is a slow onset. Delirium is an acute problem characterized by altered mentation, psychomotor behaviors (restlessness, lethargy) and an altered sleep-wake cycle (night time agitation.) Which of the following would a patient most likely exhibit that has delirium? Select all that apply. a. Night time agitation b. Attentiveness c. Short attention span d. Irritability e. Long term memory loss - ANSWER- A C D (Characteristics of delirium include:
- Delusions
- Short term memory loss
- Distractibility/short attention span
- Restlessness
- Lethargy
- Night time agitation) You are caring for an intubated patient in the intensive care unit. The patient is awake but groggy from the sedation. To assess for pain, which of the following techniques performed by the nurse would be inappropriate for this situation? a. The nurse asks the patient, "Are you in pain?" b. The nurse uses the CPOT scale or BPS tool. c. The nurse ignores the patient's vital signs because it is not a definitive indicator that the patient is in pain. d. The nurse checks the patients' glucose levels and if their pupils are dilated. - ANSWER- C (C is incorrect because when a patient is in pain, their vital signs can certainly be elevated. The nurse should use this as an indicator for pain, but the nurse should always reassess further to determine if there is another cause for the vital sign elevation. Using the Critical Care Pain Observation Tool or Behavior Pain Scale is appropriate to assess pain. Asking the patient if they are in pain is a yes or no question,
d. You encourage family engagement with the patient care. - ANSWER- A (Early mobility is important with treating and preventing delirium.) Describe CAM-ICU. - ANSWER- CAM-ICU is the Confusion Assessment Method for ICU. It is used to assess delirium in patients in the ICU. It assesses acute changes in mental status, inattention, level of consciousness, and disorganized thinking. Questions asked in the CAM-ICU Flowsheet:
- Is there an acute change from mental status baseline?
- Has the patient's mental status fluctuated during the past 24 hours?
- "Squeeze my hand when I say the letter 'A'" <--Tests attentiveness. If unable to complete letters, use pictures.
- Assess current RASS level for LOC
- Ask them a question like, "Are there fish in the sea?"
- Instruct them, "Hold up this many fingers." What is the assessment gold standard for pain? - ANSWER- Verbal report You have just been given report on your patient in the ICU. You immediately go into your patients room to assess for pain. Which of the following would be indicative that the patient is in pain? Select all that apply. a. They are fighting the ventilator. b. Their limbs are bent. c. Their facial expression is relaxed. d. They are restless. e. Their muscles are relaxed. - ANSWER- A B D Which of the following is NOT a likely sign of pain in a nonverbal patient? a. Eyes clenched shut when turning the patient b. Decreased respiratory rate c. Patient resists bending of her elbow when you try to contract her arm d. Heart rate of 120 in a 54 year old male - ANSWER- B (Decreased RR would be indicative of a parasympathetic response. Increased RR would be indicative of pain.) True or False: Titrated analgesics should be included in the patient's I's and O's. - ANSWER- True! You walk into your intubated patient's room with an IV fentanyl drip at 25mcg/hour who presents with the following: Heart rate: 130 BP: 140/ RR: 29 Which of the following should the nurse do first?
a. Ask the patient to rank her pain on a scale of 0- 10 b. Increase the fentanyl drip rate per protocol c. Call the physician for additional pain medication orders d. Get a music therapy consult e. Look at the patient's facial expression and muscle tension - ANSWER- E (Always assess first!) You walk into your intubated patient's room with an IV fentanyl drip at 25mcg/hour who presents with the following: Heart rate: 130 BP: 140/ RR: 29, ventilator alarming Hands clenched, brow narrowed, patient eyes open and looking at you anxiously. Which of the following should the nurse do first? a. Ask the patient "Are you in pain?" b. Stop the fentanyl drip and request orders for a new analgesic c. Increase the fentanyl drip rate per protocol d. Tell the patient to calm down e. Get a music therapy consult - ANSWER- A Which of the following patients would not need sedation? a. A 42-year-old male patient with a history of diabetes who has pulled out his IV 3 times. b. A 10-year-old female who has just been admitted to the trauma bay with 3rd degree burns on 80% of her body. c. An 18-year-old male that is agitated from lack of sleep. d. A 30-year-old paralyzed male that cannot breathe independently upon admittance to the ER. - ANSWER- C Side effects of Fentanyl - ANSWER- Hypotension, bradycardia, hepatotoxicity, dysrhythmias, AV blocks Nursing considerations when administering Fentanyl - ANSWER- Monitor blood pressure, monitor heart rate, monitor liver function, monitor EKGs What is the benzodiazepine of choice in the ICU? What are the nursing considerations? - ANSWER- Midazolam (Versed) The drug can accumulate in the spine if you are sedated for a long time. You can build up tolerance and withdrawal. It causes anterograde amnesia (Unable to make new memories) Watch for respiratory depression!
- Cool extremities) Normal sinus rhythm - ANSWER- - HR 60- 100
- There is one QRS for every P wave
- The P wave is less than 0.2 seconds
- The QRS wave is less than 0.12 seconds Atrial fibrillation - ANSWER- Atrial flutter - ANSWER- Sawtooth pattern Supraventricular tachycardia - ANSWER- No P or T wave distinguishable HR >150- 250 Junctional rhythm - ANSWER- Slow rhythm, 40- 60 Inverted or absent P wave 1st degree AV block - ANSWER- - Prolonged PR interval
- One QRS for every P wave
- Same distance between each QRS, same distance between every P wave 2nd degree AV block (Type I: Wenkebach) - ANSWER- - PR Intervals get progressively longer with each heart beat
- QRS may drop (Longer, longer, longer, drop) 2nd degree AV block (Type II) - ANSWER- - Heart beat occasionally loses QRS complex
- Lonely P waves with no QRS 3rd degree AV block - ANSWER- - Atrium and ventricle not communicating
- 20 - 40 BPM (Very slow HR)
- Lethal rhythm
- PR interval has no consistency
- Wide QRS complex Ventricular tachycardia - ANSWER- Ventricular fibrillation - ANSWER- Asystole - ANSWER- Pulseless electrical activity - ANSWER- Premature atrial contraction - ANSWER- Premature ventricular contraction - ANSWER-
What two rhythms do you do defibrillation? - ANSWER- Vtach w/o a pulse Vfib What four rhythms do you do synchronized cardioversion? - ANSWER- SVT Atrial fibrillation Atrial flutter Vtach with a pulse What three rhythms would you consider doing pacing? - ANSWER- Symptomatic bradycardia 3rd degree AV block Junctional rhythm This medication stops the heart and resets it to a normal sinus rhythm, used for SVT Adverse effects include a worsening dysrhythmia and low blood pressure - ANSWER- Adenosine This medication is used to increase the heart rate of a patient if they are experiencing bradycardic rhythms such as 2nd degree AV block type 1, 3rd degree heart block, junctional rhythm, and symptomatic sinus bradycardia - ANSWER- Atropine What three antidysrhythmic drugs are used for heart rates that are too fast? - ANSWER- Amiodarone Adenosine Beta blockers (-olol) This medication is used to treat heart rates that are way too fast, such as VTach, VFib, atrial fibrillation, Aflutter, sinus tachycardia, and SVT that all do not respond to vagal maneuvers. - ANSWER- Amiodarone You are caring for a client who has sinus bradycardia. Which of the following is not a cause of sinus bradycardia? a. Vasovagal response b. Being a marathon runner c. Hypoxia d. Atropine administration e. Beta blockers and calcium channel blockers - ANSWER- D (Atropine speeds up the heart rate and is used for slow EKG rhythms such as 3rd degree AV block, junctional rhythm, and symptomatic sinus bradycardia.) Which of the following medications would cause an increased heart rate? Select all that apply. a. Metoprolol
a. Cardiac surgery b. Myocardial infarction c. Digoxin toxicity d. Urinary tract infection e. Beta blockers and calcium channel blockers - ANSWER- A B C E Potential causes of PVCs and PACs - ANSWER- - Cocaine
- Amphetamines
- Caffeine
- Digoxin
- Sympathomimetics (Epinephrine)
- Inserting of a PAC PACs can turn into what rhythm? - ANSWER- SVT PVCs can turn into what rhythm? - ANSWER- VTach Identify potential causes of V-Tach and V-Fib. - ANSWER- - Electrolyte imbalance (Potassium and hypomagnesemia)
- Hypoxia
- Myocarditis
- Myocardial infarction
- R on T phenomenon (Think in 3rd degree AV block, this can occur)) This pacemaker involves pads on the skin. The defibrillator can pace someone's heart. This option is used only for emergencies. - ANSWER- Transcutaneous This pacemaker involves the physician threading leads through the patients vein into the right atrium, right ventricle, or both - ANSWER- Transvenous (More risk for hematoma, infection, pneumothorax, myocardial perforation) This pacemaker involves the pacer wires being threaded into the epicardium itself, which requires more cardiac surgery, and is the most reliable pacemaker - ANSWER- Epicardial (More risk for hematoma, infection, pneumothorax, myocardial perforation) Atrial pacing - ANSWER- A pacer spike occurs before the P wave Ventricular pacing - ANSWER- A pacer spike occurs before a WIDE QRS complex Dual chamber pacing - ANSWER- A pacer spike before both the P wave and QRS complex Failure to pace - ANSWER- Failure to initiate an electrical stimulus (pacer spike) Failure to capture - ANSWER- Electrical stimulus sent but there is no mechanical action, no heart beat following the pacer spike
Failure to sense - ANSWER- Electrical stimulus is sent but isn't sensing pts. underlying rhythm, it's sending impulses at random times Treatment: Turn up sensitivity setting How hard the muscle fibers stretch in the ventricle before the next contraction. Describes intravascular volume indicator (and/or ventricular pump ability) - ANSWER- Preload List the hemodynamic measures for preload. - ANSWER- 1. CVP/RAP
- LAP (PAWP/PAOP) Where is preload? (Could be a hot spot question) - ANSWER- You would click on the superior vena cava and/or the left atrium (Got from picture in PPT) How much resistance the ventricles have to overcome (Pressure or resistance against flow) - ANSWER- Afterload The amount of pressure in the right atrium (Used to determine how much blood is left in the RA, can be measured in the superior vena cava with a central line) - ANSWER- RAP/CVP This measurement is used to estimate the left atrial pressure. It is used to determine if blood is backing up in the left atrium, so it determines left ventricle functionality - ANSWER- PAOP/PAWP (Estimates LAP) What does preload indicate? - ANSWER- Intravascular value and/or ventricular pump ability The resistance the left ventricle must overcome to perfuse the body - ANSWER- Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) The resistance the right ventricle must overcome to perfuse the lungs - ANSWER- Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) Where would you label SVR on a heart diagram? - ANSWER- On the branches of the aorta (Arrows going in opposite direction/toward the heart) Where would you label PVR on a heart diagram? - ANSWER- On the pulmonary arteries (Arrows going in opposite direction/toward the heart) Force of ventricular contraction/how well the heart is pumping - ANSWER- Contractility What is the only direct measurement of contractility? - ANSWER- Ejection fraction
- Epinephrine
- Norepinephrine
- Amiodarone
- Dopamine List some negative inotropic medications. - ANSWER- 1. Beta blockers (ex. metoprolol)
- Calcium channel blockers (Verapamil, Dilitazem) List two causes of an increased CVP/RAP. - ANSWER- The right ventricle ineffectively pumping blood (bad pump) Hypervolemia List some causes of hypervolemia. - ANSWER- 1. Heart failure
- Renal failure
- Liver cirrhosis
- IV fluid overuse
- Even pregnancy! List one cause of a low CVP/RAP. - ANSWER- Hypovolemia (Not enough fluid from the system being returned to the heart) List causes of hypovolemia. - ANSWER- 1. Dehydration
- Hemorrhage (External or internal bleeding)
- Systemic dilation during shock
- Severe burns
- Severe diarrhea and vomiting What would cause cardiac output and cardiac index to be high? - ANSWER- 1. Sympathetic nervous system activation (And anything that would cause SNS activation, such as pain)
- Hypervolemia
- Inotropic medications, such as dobutamine, digoxin, epinephrine, etc. What would cause a low cardiac output/cardiac index? - ANSWER- 1. Parasympathetic nervous system activation
- CNS depression (What are CNS depressants?)
- Hypovolemia
- Negative inotropic medications (BBs and CCBs) How are preload and cardiac output/cardiac index related? - ANSWER- A low CO/CI can cause a high preload because if there is blood leftover in the heart, that can get backed up into the atria, causing a high pressure List some causes of CNS depression. - ANSWER- 1. Alcohol
- Benzodiazepines (What is midazolam...what is it used for?
- Opioids (Do we use opioids/narcotics in the ICU?)
- Heroin What would cause a high PAOP/PAWP or LAP? - ANSWER- 1. Left ventricular inefficiency (If the left ventricle isn't pumping well, that blood is going to back up into the left atrium, causing a higher pressure in the left atrium)
- Hypervolemia What can cause left ventricular inefficiency/failure? - ANSWER- 1. Left-sided heart failure
- Left ventricular hypertrophy (Caused by uncontrolled high blood pressure)
- Heart attacks What would cause a low PAOP/PAWP or LAP? - ANSWER- 1. Low right atrial pressure (if the pressure is too low in the right atrium that can mean that there is not enough blood there, which would mean that a low amount of blood is getting to the pulmonary arteries, where the PAOP/PAWP is measured)
- Hypovolemia (Poor return of blood to the heart) What would cause a high systemic vascular resistance? - ANSWER- 1. Peripheral vasoconstriction
- Hypertension
- Arteriosclerosis + atherosclerosis
- High blood viscosity What health conditions and medications can cause peripheral vasoconstriction? - ANSWER- 1. Early hypovolemic shock (Compensation stage)
- Vasopressors (Norepinephrine, epinephrine, dopamine)
- Sympathetic nervous system activation What can cause a low systemic vascular resistance? - ANSWER- 1. Systemic vasodilation (Distributive shocks!) A client's cardiac index is figured to be 3.2L/min/m2. How should the nurse interpret this data? a.This finding is slightly low, but should be correctable with moderate fluid replacement. b. This is a critically low CI and should be addressed immediately. c. This is a high CI, but is not detrimental to the client. d. The client's CI is within the normal range. - ANSWER- D A PA catheter has just been inserted. What is the nurse's primary intervention? a. Draw 30 mL of blood back through the catheter to check patency. b. Place a bulky dressing over the catheter site. c. Call for a chest x-ray.
