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Cisco CCNA Certification Guide: Complete Study
Material, Exam Prep, Networking Fundamentals,
and Practice Questions for 2025 Success
1. What will Router1 do when it receives the data frame shown? (Choose three) A. ✅ Router1 will strip off the source MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c36. B. Router1 will strip off the source IP address and replace it with the IP address 192.168.40. C. ✅ Router1 will strip off the destination MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c07. D. Router1 will strip off the destination IP address and replace it with the IP address of 192.168.40. E. Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/ F. ✅ Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/ Rationale: Routers strip the Layer 2 (Ethernet) header and replace the source and destination MAC addresses. They do not change IP addresses unless NAT is configured. The forwarding interface depends on the destination IP in the routing table. 2. Which three statements correctly describe Network Device A? (Choose three) A. Each interface must be on the same IP subnet B. With a network-wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does require an IP address on a unique IP subnet C. It can only be a Layer 2 switch D. ✅ With a network-wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 3 device for the PCs to communicate with each other E. ✅ With a network-wide mask of 255.255.254.0, each interface does not require an IP address Rationale: - Subnet masks determine whether devices need to be on different IP subnets.
- Layer 3 devices are required for inter-subnet communication.
- A /23 mask (255.255.254.0) allows for multiple IPs in one subnet, removing the need for different IPs per interface. 3. Which layer in the OSI model checks resource availability and receiving program readiness? A. Session B. Transport C. Network D. Data Link E. Application Rationale: The application layer ensures that applications can communicate, and that necessary resources exist for communication to take place. 4. Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three) A. ✅ A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop B. A switch provides a DCE function C. A router is always a DCE device D. A modem terminates an analog local loop E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device Rationale:
- CSU/DSUs connect digital lines.
- Modems are for analog termination.
- Routers typically act as DTE (Data Terminal Equipment) in WAN setups. 5. Host A pings interface S0/0 on Router 3. What is the TTL value for that ping? A. 255 B. 253 C. 254 D. 252 Rationale: ICMP ping packets typically start with a TTL of 255. Each router hop decrements the TTL by 1. If there are two router hops to interface S0/0, the TTL will be 253.
Rationale: Checksums at the data link layer (such as FCS in Ethernet) are used to detect frame errors. Corrupt frames are discarded at this layer.
10. Which steps occur in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two) A. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information B. The session layer adds routing information C. The data link layer adds logical addressing D. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment E. The physical layer adds logical addressing Rationale: - The transport layer handles segmentation. - The network layer adds IP addressing, forming packets. - Data link adds physical addressing (MAC), not logical. 11. What is the source MAC address of frames received by Host A from the server? A. The MAC address of the router’s interface e B. The MAC address of the server C. The MAC address of Host A D. The broadcast MAC address Rationale: When traffic crosses a router, the router replaces the source MAC with its own interface MAC. 12. What two results would occur if a hub were replaced by a switch with one Ethernet VLAN? (Choose two) A. The number of broadcast domains would increase B. The number of collision domains would remain the same C. The number of collision domains would increase D. The number of broadcast domains would remain the same
Rationale: Switches break up collision domains (one per port) but still maintain one broadcast domain unless VLANs are configured.
13. Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose three) A. Switches use IP addresses to forward data B. Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains C. Switches perform packet-level routing D. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions E. In a redundant switched network, only one root bridge will have all ports in the forwarding state; others have one root port Rationale: - VLANs segment broadcast domains. - Microsegmentation provides each device a dedicated segment, reducing collisions. - Spanning Tree Protocol ensures only one root bridge per broadcast domain to avoid loops. Where does routing occur within the DoD TCP/IP reference model? - - correct ans- - B. internet Which destination addresses will be used by Host A to send data to Host C? (Choose two.) - - correct ans- - C. the IP address of Host C F. the MAC address of the router's E0 interface For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? (Choose two.) - - correct ans- - A. to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2 E. to allow communication between different devices on the same network
MAC 0000.0c89. IP 172.16.34. IP 172.16.21. drag and drop towards router B - - correct ans- - MAC 0000.0c89. MAC 0000.0c89. IP 172.16.21. IP 172.16.34. drag and drop, complete network diagram. - - correct ans- - Router DTE DCE CSU/DSU Synchronous Digital Line Wan Service Provider Network Switch port FastEthernet 0/24 on ALSwitch1 will be used to create an IEEE 802.1Q- compliant trunk to another switch. Based on the output shown, what is the reason the trunk does not form, even though the proper cabling has been attached? - - correct ans-
- C. The port is currently configured for access mode. Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST? - - correct ans- - C. discarding VLAN 3 is not yet configured on your switch. What happens if you set the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode? - - correct ans- - C. The command is accepted and the respective VLAN is added to vlan.dat What value is primarily used to determine which port becomes the root port on each nonroot switch in a spanning-tree topology? - - correct ans- - A. path cost
In a switched environment, what does the IEEE 802.1Q standard describe? - - correct ans- - B. a method of VLAN trunking Switch-1 needs to send data to a host with a MAC address of 00b0.d056.efa4. What will Switch-1 do with this data? - - correct ans- - B. Switch-1 will flood the data out all of its ports except the port from which the data originated. What is the function of the command switchport trunk native vlan 999 on a Cisco Catalyst switch? - - correct ans- - B. It designates VLAN 999 for untagged traffic. Which two protocols are used by bridges and/or switches to prevent loops in a layer 2 network? (Choose two.) - - correct ans- - A. 802.1d D. STP Which switch would STP choose to become the root bridge in the selection process? - - correct ans- - A. 32768: 11- 22 - 33 - 44 - 55 - 66 A switch is configured with all ports assigned to VLAN 2 with full duplex FastEthernet to segment existing departmental traffic. What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on the switch? - - correct ans- - D. An additional broadcast domain will be created What are three benefits of implementing VLANs? (Choose three.) - - correct ans- - A. A higher level of network security can be reached by separating sensitive data traffic from other network traffic. C. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many logical networks to use the same network infrastructure. D. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by increasing the number of broadcast domains, thus reducing their size. Which IEEE standard protocol is initiated as a result of successful DTP completion in a switch over Fast Ethernet? - - correct ans- - D. 802.1Q
Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the reason that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2? - - correct ans- - C. This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology. Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address? - - correct ans- - C. A broadcast address will never be the source address of a frame. Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1? - - correct ans- - D. It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge. Which two link protocols are used to carry multiple VLANs over a single link? (Choose two.) - - correct ans- - B. 802.1q D. ISL Assuming the default switch configuration, which VLAN range can be added, modified, and removed on a Cisco switch? - - correct ans- - B. 2 through 1001 Which statement about VLAN operation on Cisco Catalyst switches is true? - - correct ans- - B. Unknown unicast frames are retransmitted only to the ports that belong to the same VLAN. Which ports will be STP designated ports if all the links are operating at the same bandwidth? (Choose three.) - - correct ans- - B. Switch A - Fa0/ C. Switch B - Fa0/ D. Switch B - Fa0/ How should the FastEthernet0/1 ports on the 2950 model switches that are shown in the exhibit be configured to allow connectivity between all devices? - - correct ans- - B. SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode trunk A frame on VLAN 1 on switch S1 is sent to switch S2 where the frame is received on VLAN 2. What causes this behavior? - - correct ans- - C. native VLAN mismatches
Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.) - - correct ans- - A. RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure. B. RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles. D. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does. At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops? - - correct ans- - B. data link What does a Layer 2 switch use to decide where to forward a received frame? - - correct ans- - F. destination MAC address Which statement is true? (switchA spanning tree protocol) - - correct ans- - D. SwitchA is not the root bridge, because not all of the interface roles are designated. Which two benefits are provided by creating VLANs? (Choose two.) - - correct ans- - A. added security C. provides segmentation Which command can be used from a PC to verify the connectivity between hosts that connect through a switch in the same LAN? - - correct ans- - A. ping address Which option contains both the potential networking problem and the protocol or setting that should be used to prevent the problem? - - correct ans- - F. switching loops, STP Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.) - - correct ans- - D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router must be configured with subinterfaces. F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.
Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three.)
- correct ans- - A. 802.1Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default. C. 802.1Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces. E. 802.1Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends. The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three statements are true? (Choose three.) - - correct ans- - A. All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning, or forwarding. C. The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree. E. All designated ports are in a forwarding state. At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role? - - correct ans- - C. Switch4, port fa0/ Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all switch ports in either the blocking or fowarding state? - - correct ans- - A. converged What are the possible trunking modes for a switch port? (Choose three.) - - correct ans-
- B. auto C. on D. desirable Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.) - - correct ans- - B. RSTP defines new port roles. E. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP. Which two statements are true of the interfaces on Switch1? (Choose two.) - - correct ans- - B. A hub is connected directly to FastEthernet0/5. E. FastEthernet0/1 is configured as a trunk link.
Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. Assuming the default switch configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of VLAN 1? - - correct ans- - B. the switch with the lowest MAC address What are three advantages of VLANs? (Choose three.) - - correct ans- - A. VLANs establish broadcast domains in switched networks. E. VLANs allow access to network services based on department, not physical location. F. VLANs can greatly simplify adding, moving, or changing hosts on the network. Cisco Catalyst switches CAT1 and CAT2 have a connection between them using ports FA0/13. An 802.1Q trunk is configured between the two switches. On CAT1, VLAN 10 is chosen as native, but on CAT2 the native VLAN is not specified. What will happen in this scenario? - - correct ans- - C. A native VLAN mismatch error message will appear A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents this design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made about this design? - - correct ans- - A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents this design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made about this design? A technician is troubleshooting host connectivity issues on the switches. The hosts in VLANs 10 and 15 on Sw11 are unable to communicate with hosts in the same VLANs on Sw12. Hosts in the Admin VLAN are able to communicate. The port-to-VLAN assignments are identical on the two switches. What could be the problem? - - correct ans- - B. The link connecting the switches has not been configured as a trunk. Given this output for SwitchC, what should the network administrator's next action be? -
- correct ans- - C. Check the duplex mode for SwitchA's fa0/2 port. A network administrator is configuring an EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2. The SW1 configuration is shown. What is the correct configuration for SW2? - - correct ans- - C. interface FastEthernet 0/1 channel-group 1 mode desirable switchport trunk
C. no broadcasts E. plug-and-play Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router? - - correct ans- - C. ipv unicast-routing What is known as "one-to-nearest" addressing in IPv6? - - correct ans- - B. anycast What is the first 24 bits in a MAC address called? - - correct ans- - C. OUI Which subnet mask will place all hosts on Network B in the same subnet with the least amount of wasted addresses? - - correct ans- - B. 255.255.254. What is the most appropriate summarization for these routes? - - correct ans- - B. 10.0.0.0 / Which two are features of IPv6? (Choose two.) - - correct ans- - A. anycast C. multicast Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.) -
- correct ans- - B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type. C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address. A new subnet with 60 hosts has been added to the network. Which subnet address should this network use to provide enough usable addresses while wasting the fewest addresses? - - correct ans- - C. 192.168.1.64/ All of the routers in the network are configured with the ip subnet-zero command. Which network addresses should be used for Link A and Network A? (Choose two.) - - correct ans- - B. Network A - 172.16.3.128/
D. Link A - 172.16.3.0/ The network administrator needs to address seven LANs. RIP version 1 is the only routing protocol in use on the network and subnet 0 is not being used. What is the maximum number of usable IP addresses that can be supported on each LAN if the organization is using one class C address block? - - correct ans- - C. 30 What will happen if a private IP address is assigned to a public interface connected to an ISP? - - correct ans- - A. Addresses in a private range will be not be routed on the Internet backbone. Which two benefits are provided by using a hierarchical addressing network addressing scheme? (Choose two.) - - correct ans- - A. reduces routing table entries E. ease of management and troubleshooting What is the alternative notation for the IPv6 address B514:82C3:0000:0000:0029:EC7A:0000:EC72? - - correct ans- - D. B514 : 82C3 :: 0029 : EC7A : 0 : EC All hosts have connectivity with one another. Which statements describe the addressing scheme that is in use in the network? (Choose three.) - - correct ans- - B. The subnet mask in use is 255.255.255.128. C. The IP address 172.16.1.25 can be assigned to hosts in VLAN F. The LAN interface of the router is configured with multiple IP addresses. Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two.) - - correct ans- - A. Global addresses start with 2000::/3. D. There is only one loopback address and it is ::1. The network administrator has been asked to give reasons for moving from IPv4 to IPv6. What are two valid reasons for adopting IPv6 over IPv4? (Choose two.) - - correct ans- - A. no broadcast
Which three are characteristics of an IPv6 anycast address? (Choose three.) - - correct ans- - B. one-to-nearest communication model E. the same address for multiple devices in the group F. delivery of packets to the group interface that is closest to the sending device A national retail chain needs to design an IP addressing scheme to support a nationwide network. The company needs a minimum of 300 sub-networks and a maximum of 50 host addresses per subnet. Working with only one Class B address, which of the following subnet masks will support an appropriate addressing scheme? (Choose two.)
- correct ans- - B. 255.255.255. E. 255.255.255. A network administrator is adding two new hosts to SwitchA. Which three values could be used for the configuration of these hosts? (Choose three.) - - correct ans- - A. host A IP address: 192.168.1. C. host A default gateway: 192.168.1. F. host B IP address: 192.168.1. Which IPv6 address is the all-router multicast group? - - correct ans- - B. FF02:: Which address range efficiently summarizes the routing table of the addresses for router Main? - - correct ans- - 172.16.0.0./ Which IPv6 address is valid? - - correct ans- - D. 2031:0:130F::9C0:876A:130B Which command can you use to manually assign a static IPv6 address to a router interface? - - correct ans- - B. ipv6 address 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/ Which of these represents an IPv6 link-local address? - - correct ans- - A. FE80::380e:611a:e14f:3d
The network administrator is asked to configure 113 point-to-point links. Which IP addressing scheme defines the address range and subnet mask that meet the requirement and waste the fewest subnet and host addresses? - - correct ans- - D. 10.10.0.0/23 subnetted with mask 255.255.255. Drag & Drop (6) - - correct ans- - 1.a configurable value based by default on the bandwidth of the interface 2.the amount of activity on a network resource 3.the data capacity of a link 4.the number of point to point links in a transmission path 5.usually refers to bit error rate of each network link 6.the amount of time required to move a packet from source to destination. drag & drop (5 numbers) - - correct ans- - 120 110 1 90 0 drag and drop (6 IP addresses) - - correct ans- - 10.2.1. 10.6.8. 10.1.0. 10.1.0. 10.1.1. 10.1.4. Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers? - - correct ans- - A. Bandwidth
