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AORN REVIEW FINAL EXAM 2025
LATEST REAL QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS GRADE A
Which of the following statements are true about objective data? a. Data that consists of the patient's own feelings and perceptions. b. Age, religion, or culture are examples of objective data. c. Data that is the information written in the patient's record and nursing notes. d. History, physical, and laboratory data are examples of objective data.c. Data that is the information written in the patient's record and nursing notes. d. History, physical, and laboratory data are examples of objective data. Match the age groups with their ability for learning and understanding.
- Birth to one month
- 1 - 12 months
- 1 - 3 years
- 3 - 6 years a. The baby will smile, babble, and gurgle. b. The baby is able to understand and respond to simple commands. c. The child is able to literally interpret terms. d. The child is able to express only through crying.1. D
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- C Patients in which of the following age-groups have the greatest blood volume per unit of body weight. a. children b. elderly adults c. middle adults d. young adultsa. children During the preoperative interview, why should the perioperative nurse ask patients about their use of herbal preparations, alcohol, tobacco products, and recreational drugs? (select all that apply) a. herbal supplements may affect the metabolism of drugs administered b. patients who use alcohol heavily are unable to tolerate general anesthesia c. recreational drug use may affect the choice of preoperative sedation. d. smoking may affect circulatory and respiratory system assessment results.a. herbal supplements may affect the metabolism of drugs administered c. recreational drug use may affect the choice of preoperative sedation d. smoking may affect circulatory and respiratory system assessment results. Which items below are included in a psychosocial assessment? (select all that apply) a. coping styles b. cultural beliefs and practices c. expectations of perioperative care d. sensory impairment
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e. spiritual or religious beliefsa. coping styles b. cultural beliefs and practices c. expectations of perioperative care e. spiritual or religious beliefs Which of the following statements is true? a. blood pressure remains constant with age. b. body temperature increases with increasing age. c. heart rate increases with increasing age d. lung capacity decreases with increasing aged. lung capacity decreases with increasing age Which of the following factors make geriatric patients more sensitive to injury and cold? a. decrease in subcutaneous fat b. lung capacity decreases with age c. bilirubin and hemoglobin shift d. rage of medication absorption is decreaseda. decrease in subcutaneous fat Why is it important to assess the use of herbal supplements or recreational drugs before surgery? a. herbal preparations can decrease the toxicity of other drugs administered during anesthesia. b. herbal preparations can affect bleeding times. c. herbal preparations can interfere with drug metabolism. d. recreational drug use can result in withdrawal symptoms. e. recreational drug users may require higher doses of anesthetic medications.b. herbal preparations can affect bleeding times. c. herbal preparations can interfere with drug metabolism. d. recreational drug use can result in withdrawal symptoms. e. recreational drug users may require higher doses of anesthetic medications. What interventions can the perioperative nurse perform to protect elderly patients? a. employ deep vein thrombosis prophylactic devices. b. position the patient for effective air exchange. c. slide patient onto the OR bed without use of assistive device. d. use warming devices to maintain the normothermia.a. employ deep vein thrombosis prophylactic devices. c. slide patient onto the OR bed without use of assistive device. d. use warming devices to maintain the normothermia. A child in which of the following age groups can be described as "likes to socialize and can interpret terms?" a. 1 - 12 months b. 1 - 3 years c. 3 - 6 years d. 6 - 12 yearsc. 3-6 years After the preoperative assessment has been conducted on a patient, the perioperative nurse should document: a. cuts and abrasions b. preoperative hair removal, if ordered c. skin condition d. financial arrangements
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d. nasogastric tubes e. inadequate fluid replacement Any tissue or fluid removed from the body is documented and identified. some of the items included in the documentation accompanying specimens are: a. site, location, type of dressing, loss of fluid b. type of specimen, date and time of collection, and hypersensitive reactions c. date and time of collection, site, surgeon's name and contact infoc. date and time of collection, site, surgeon's name and contact info When documenting a dressing, the name of the person applying the dressing should be noted. a. true b. falseb. false Based on the knowledge you have gained about using abbreviations, identify the true statements about abbreviations. a. Abbreviations are to be used by physicians only. b. Abbreviations can lead to medical errors. c. Abbreviations are difficult to read. d. Abbreviations might be wrongly interpreted.b. Abbreviations can lead to medical errors. c. Abbreviations are difficult to read. d. Abbreviations might be wrongly interpreted. A successful lawsuit that an RN could be involved in: a. does not require patient injury b. only requires a nurse-patient relationship c. must show duty, breach, causation, and damages d. considers whether the patient has filed previous lawsuitsc. must show duty, breach, causation, and damages Based on the knowledge you have gained about legal aspects of documentation and nursing practice, which elements must be proved for a negligence claim to be successful? a. Damages: actual injury to the patient b. Breach of duty: care provided was not within the standard of care c. Reasonableness: a nurse in the same circumstance would have done the same thing d. Duty: a nurse-patient relationship exists e. Causation: what the nurse did or did not do resulted in patient injurya. Damages: actual injury to the patient b. Breach of duty: care provided was not within the standard of care d. Duty: a nurse-patient relationship exists e. Causation: what the nurse did or did not do resulted in patient injury When documenting, always include your assessment of the situation, the actions you took, and the patient's response to them. a. True b. Falsea. True Charting by exception is a time saver and ________. a. is easy even if you don't understand what is expected of a nurse b. does not require assessment skills c. is based on the premise that the patient manifests normal response to most interventions d. does not require documentation during the shift or notes on changes in the patient's progress ANSWER-c. is based on the premise that the patient manifests normal response to most interventions
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Accurate preoperative documentation of the patient admission is an integral part of the nursing process. This includes: a. patient identification b. preoperative orders c. discharge referral d. patient assessmenta. patient identification b. preoperative orders d. patient assessment The primary purpose of documentation is to: a. be prepared in case a court case is filed b. make sure everything is written down c. record the chronological order of events during the nursing care of a patient d. relate any conversations and discussion with the patient or family in detailc. record the chronological order of events during the nursing care of a patient When documenting the placement of a surgical drain, which of the following components should be included? a. date for expiration noted on the packaging b. manufacturer's name c. serial number d. where the drain was placed on the patientd. where the drain was placed on the patient Which of the following is true about the use of abbreviations in perioperative documentation? a. there are only three possible words that could present problems in the clinical setting b. they are easy to interpret when writing orders c. they are not part of the Joint Commission and AORN safety goals d. they can put patients at risk for medication errorsd. they can put patients at risk for medication errors When documenting, the perioperative nurse should: a. document in a timely manner b. use medical diagnoses c. use nursing diagnoses based on sound judgement d. use patient statements to verify the nurse's findings e. document patient statements as factsa. document in a timely manner c. use nursing diagnoses based on sound judgement d. use patient statements to verify the nurse's findings Which of the following statements are true about informed consent? a. Needs to state the indications for the proposed intervention b. Is a physician's duty, and the RNs are witnesses to the patient's signature c. Does not expose the nurse to liability if the nurse does not follow hospital policy d. Does not allow approved substitutes to give consent for patient e. Must contain the name of the health care facility.a. Needs to state the indications for the proposed intervention b. Is a physician's duty, and the RNs are witnesses to the patient's signature e. Must contain the name of the health care facility. When documenting the use of a pneumatic tourniquet, which items should be included? a. cuff pressure b. location where the cuff was placed c. name of person who applied the tourniquet cuff d. name of person who inflated the tourniquet
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a. When the scrub is setting up the back table. b. As close as possible to the time of implantation. c. While the cement is being mixed. d. Before anatomical reduction with the trial implants.b. As close as possible to the time of implantation. Which of the following statements are correct? (SATA) Medications and solutions should be transferred: a. via a sterile transfer device such as a sterile vial spike, filter straw, or plastic catheter. b. as fast as possible so the scrub is not away from the surgical field. c. into a receptacle that is placed at the back edge of the back table or held by a scrub team member. d. at the time that the back table is being set up.a. via a sterile transfer device such as a sterile vial spike, filter straw, or plastic catheter. c. into a receptacle that is placed at the back edge of the back table or held by a scrub team member. Regarding recommendation of continual monitoring of the sterile field. What is recommended in the event of a breach of sterile technique? a. Take corrective action immediately b. Consider any clamped instruments contaminated c. All perioperative personnel should monitor the sterile field for contamination d. All of the aboved. All of the above At what times should a sterile field be covered? (SATA) a. For procedural delays b. When the patient is being repositioned c. When the evening crew is setting up tables for next day cases. d. A separate closure field that contains dressing spongesa. For procedural delays b. When the patient is being repositioned Which of the following statements are true? (SATA) a. Scrubbed personnel should stay as close to the sterile field as possible. b. Door openings decrease OR environmental contamination by allowing air to escape from the OR. c. Scrubbed team members can turn their back on the sterile field when getting instruments or equipment from the back table. d. The number of people and movement within the OR may contribute to OR environmental contamination.a. Scrubbed personnel should stay as close to the sterile field as possible. d. The number of people and movement within the OR may contribute to OR environmental contamination. A large amount of data is collected in the event of an SSI. From the following, select all that are discoverable by the infection preventionist and other members of an interdisciplinary team. a. Intraoperative and postoperative delays. b. Hand hygiene and surgical hand antisepsis routines. c. Implementation of IUSS. d. Movement of personnel around and within the sterile field.b. Hand hygiene and surgical hand antisepsis routines. c. Implementation of IUSS. d. Movement of personnel around and within the sterile field. Adhesive incision drapes: a. without antimicrobial properties are preferred for most surgeries. b. may be used according to the manufacturer's instructions for use c. with antimicrobial properties should be used unless contraindicated
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d. B & C e. All of the aboved. B & C In the event of an SSI, the infection preventionist will evaluate sterile technique practices. Which of the following will be reviewed by the infection preventionist and the interdisciplinary team? a. Implementation of Immediate Use Steam Sterilization (IUSS) b. Numbers and roles of all personnel who were in the OR during the case in question c. Heater/cooler device use d. A & B e. All of the abovee. All of the above. Match the terms given below with their definitions.
- Surgical conscience
- Sterile
- Sterile technique a. The use of specific actions and activities to prevent contamination and maintain sterility of identified areas during operative or other invasive procedures. b. Allows for no compromise in the principles of sterile technique. c. The absence of all living microorganisms.1. b
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- a Recommendations for draping include: a. handling sterile drapes as little as possible. b. cuffing the drape material over the gloved hands. c. holding the drapes in a controlled manner. d. All of the aboved. All of the above. Select the areas of the sterile gown that are considered sterile (SATA) a. back of the gown from the nape of the neck to the level of the elbows b. gown sleeves from two inches above the elbow to the cuff, circumferentially c. front of the gown from the chest to the level of the sterile field d. sleeve cuff that is covered by the sterile gloveb. gown sleeves from two inches above the elbow to the cuff, circumferentially c. front of the gown from the chest to the level of the sterile field Which of the following are correct concerning the surgical gown and gloves? a. Surgical gloves should be changed after touching methyl methacrylate, optic eye pieces, and surgical helmet systems. b. The cuff of the sterile gown is considered contaminated once the hands pass through the cuff. c. Wear one pair of surgical gloves for short procedures. d. A & B e. All of the above.d. A & B In creating a sterile field, which of the following are recommended by AORN? (SATA) a. Cuff the drapes over your gloved hand to prevent contamination. b. Handle the drapes as needed to get the best coverage. c. Place drapes in sequence from the surgical site to peripheral areas. d. Place drapes on the patient and any furniture and equipment that will be in the sterile field. e. When placing drapes do not lean across unsterile areas. After placing the drape on the pt, reposition as needed to provide coverage.a. Cuff the drapes over your gloved hand to prevent contamination. c. Place drapes in sequence from the surgical site to peripheral areas.
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c. clamps the vessel d. swells, forming a clot1. c
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- b What are the cautions and contraindications when using bone wax? (SATA) a. Could cause a movable clot if placed near a vessel. b. Can act as a physical barrier that prevents bone union. c. Is contraindicated when rapid bone regeneration is desired. d. Can react with any metal hardware that is attached to the bone.b. Can act as a physical barrier that prevents bone union. c. Is contraindicated when rapid bone regeneration is desired. these types of sponges provide blunt dissection as they absorb fluids: a. neuro-patties b. laparotomy sponges c. cherry dissectors d. radiopaque spongesc. cherry dissectors Which of the following is not a reason to avoid using radiopaque sponges for postoperative dressings? a. Radiopaque sponges are not as absorbent b. Possible invalidation of subsequent sponge counts if the patient were returned to the OR with intact dressings. c. Radiopaque sponges may appear as a foreign body on postoperative x-rays.a. Radiopaque sponges are not as absorbent Selection of dressing type is based on the type of procedure and surgeon preference. Select the dressing to be used if the goal were hydration of tissue. a. hydrogel b. gauze c. biologic d. occlusivea. hydrogel It both hydrates and soothes the affected tissue. Sponge counts are done for all of the following reasons, except: a. to account for sponges used on the surgical field. b. to prevent injury to a patient by a retained foreign body. c. because state laws require specific count procedures.c. because state laws require specific count procedures. Which of the following are reasons to avoid using radiopaque sponges for postoperative dressings? (SATA) a. Possible invalidation of subsequent sponge counts if the patient were returned to the OR with intact dressings. b. Radiopaque sponges are not as absorbent. c. Radiopaque sponges may appear as a foreign body on post- operative x-rays. d. Radiopaque sponges are more costly than non-radiopaque sponges.a. Possible invalidation of subsequent sponge counts if the patient were returned to the OR with intact dressings. c. Radiopaque sponges may appear as a foreign body on post-operative x- rays. Which classification of hemostatic methods involves pressure or the use of ligating clips? a. chemical b. mechanical
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c. thermalb. mechanical What precaution should be taken when microfibrillar collagen is used as a hemostatic agen intraoperatively? a. Antibiotics must be administered concurrently because of increased risk of wound infection. b. Moisten or wet agent to achieve hemostasis. c. Avoid using it with an autologous blood salvage unit. d. Protamine sulfate should be available as a reversal agent.c. Avoid using it with an autologous blood salvage unit. Which of the following drains allows for passive drainage of fluid from the body? (SATA) a. Jackson-Pratt b. Penrose c. T-tube d. Hemovacb. Penrose c. T-tube The benefits of a standardized count procedure include which of the following? (SATA) a. Assists in achieving accuracy during the count procedure. b. Assists in conducting efficient counts. c. Human error studies have shown that many errors result from deviation. d. Provides a bonding situation among perioperative team members.a. Assists in achieving accuracy during the count procedure. b. Assists in conducting efficient counts. c. Human error studies have shown that many errors result from deviation. Which type of dressing is used to prevent drying of the wound and increase proliferation of the epithelial cells? a. gauze b. pressure c. rigid support d. occlusived. occlusive Which of the following is true in handling hemostatic agents such as collagen or gelatin sponges? a. Should be moistened prior to use. b. Should not be left in the wound, since they are not absorbable. c. Are highly perishable and should be refrigerated prior to use. d. Must not be injected or allowed to enter large vessels, as extensive intravascular clotting may occur. d. Must not be injected or allowed to enter large vessels, as extensive intravascular clotting may occur. Based on the knowledge you have gained about ESUs and their usage, identify the statements below that are true about an ESU. (SATA) a. Electrosurgery is used to cut tissue. b. ESUs are a high radio-frequency electrical current. c. The active electrode is also referred to as "grounding pad." d. Bipolar current is most frequently used for electrosurgery. e. The dispersive electrode is also referred to as the "grounding pad."a. Electrosurgery is used to cut tissue. b. ESUs are a high radio-frequency electrical current. e. The dispersive electrode is also referred to as the "grounding pad." When using the ESU generator, the perioperative nurse should remember to:
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d. Bipolar electrosurgery should not be used for surgery on brain or nerve tissue. e. Laparoscopic electrosurgery has the potential to cause capacitative-coupling injuries. f. AEC provides a secondary source of gas that can result in a rapid rise in the patient's intraabdominal pressure.a. In bipolar electrosurgery, both the active electrode and return electrode functions are performed at the site or surgery. b. AEC is a monopolar form of electrosurgery. e. Laparoscopic electrosurgery has the potential to cause capacitative-coupling injuries. f. AEC provides a secondary source of gas that can result in a rapid rise in the patient's intraabdominal pressure. Based on the knowledge you have gained about precautions when using an ESU, identify which of the following the perioperative RN should bear in mind when using an ESU on a patient with a pacemaker. (SATA) a. The distance between the active electrode and the dispersive electrode should be as short as possible. b. Both electrodes should be as far from the pacemaker as possible. c. The dispersive electrode should be placed in such a position that the current from the active electrode does not pass through the vicinity of the patient's heart or through the pacemaker. d. The nurse need not consult the patient's cardiologist. e. All ESU cables and cords should be kept away from the pacemaker and its leads. f. Monopolar current is preferred.a. The distance between the active electrode and the dispersive electrode should be as short as possible. b. Both electrodes should be as far from the pacemaker as possible. c. The dispersive electrode should be placed in such a position that the current from the active electrode does not pass through the vicinity of the patient's heart or through the pacemaker. e. All ESU cables and cords should be kept away from the pacemaker and its leads. Which of the following types of smoke evacuation devices are considered primary protection. (SATA) a. Smoke evacuator b. fit-tested n95 respirator c. central suction system with a 0.1 micrometer in-line filter d. high-filtration surgical mask e. central suction system with HEPA in-line filtera. Smoke evacuator c. central suction system with a 0.1 micrometer in-line filter e. central suction system with HEPA in-line filter Components of the electrosurgical circuit include: a. active electrode, dispersive electrode, and generator b. dispersive electrode, fiber, and generator c. active electrode, dispersive electrode, generator, and scratch pad d. dispersive electrode, fiber, generator, and keya. active electrode, dispersive electrode, and generator To reduce the possibility of an injury or burn, which of the following most accurately describes where the perioperative RN should place the dispersive electrode? a. as far from the operative site as feasible b. directly on the operative site c. as close to the operative site as feasible d. anywhere it will be easy to accessc. as close to the operative site as feasible Which statement best describes the path for bipolar surgical current? a. Current leaves the generator, is applied to tissue using a pencil device, is collected in the dispersive pad, and returns to the generator. b. Current leaves the generator, is applied to tissue using a pencil device, and returns to the generator.
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c. Current leaves the generator, is applied to tissue using a two-poled instrument, and returns to the generator.c. Current leaves the generator, is applied to tissue using a two- poled instrument, and returns to the generator. If the surgeon continuously asks for higher power settings, what is the first action that the perioperative RN should take? a. Get another ESU unit immediately. b. Check the circuitry for possible disruption. c. Switch to a bipolar generator and electrode. d. Change the active electrode and dispersive electrode.b. Check the circuitry for possible disruption. Alternate pathway burns can occur because of improper placement of the dispersive electrode. The dispersive electrode SHOULD NOT be applied on which of the following (SATA): a. hairy skin surfaces b. burn tissue c. well-perfused muscle d. bony prominencesa. hairy skin surfaces b. burn tissue d. bony prominences When using argon-enhanced coagulation (AEC), there is a risk of: a. electrosurgical injuries b. carbon dioxide purge c. gas emboli d. decreased insufflator pressurec. gas emboli The term local exhaust ventilation (LEV) is used to describe the process of evacuating smoke from the surgical site. Which of the following are considered LEV? (SATA) a. Central suction system with 0. micrometer in-line filter b. Central suction system with HEPA in-line filter c. High filtration surgical masks d. N95 respirators e. Smoke evacuator unita. Central suction system with 0.1 micrometer in-line filter b. Central suction system with HEPA in-line filter e. Smoke evacuator unit Which precautions should be taken for a patient who has an implantable electronic device (IED)? SATA a. All team members should be informed about the IED. b. Insist that the surgeon use bipolar current instead of monopolar current. c. There should be intermittent EKG monitoring. d. The active and dispersive electrodes should be located as close together as possiblea. All team members should be informed about the IED. d. The active and dispersive electrodes should be located as close together as possible According to the AORN Guideline for Safe Use of Energy-Generating Devices, which of the following are recommended components of documentation when using an ESU? (SATA) a. location of the dispersive electrode b. serial or biomedical device number c. ESU brand name d. Patient's skin condition before and after applying the dispersive pada. location of the dispersive electrode b. serial or biomedical device number
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Disassembly, cool water rinse, enzymatic wash, and use of appropriate detergent are principles used in: a. decontamination b. steam sterilization c. high-level disinfection d. gas plasma sterilizationa. decontamination Based on what you have learned about prion disease, identify the facts that are true about prions. SATA a. Prions are not bacteria or viruses but rather malformed proteins. b. Creutfeldt-Jakob disease is a degenerative neurologic disease that appears to be caused by prions. c. Prions appear to be resistant to most forms of sterilization used in health care settings. d. Prions appear to have a marked vulnerability towards moist heat.a. Prions are not bacteria or viruses but rather malformed proteins. b. Creutfeldt-Jakob disease is a degenerative neurologic disease that appears to be caused by prions. c. Prions appear to be resistant to most forms of sterilization used in health care settings. During the assembly process, instruments should be placed in a specifically designed container that restricts the penetration of the sterilizing agent and prevents the trapping of air. True/falseFalse During assembly, instruments should be arranged in sets and placed in a tray with a mesh or perforated bottom or specifically designed container that permits the penetration of the sterilizing agent and prevents the trapping of air. Packaging systems should: a. permit sterilization to take place. b. maintain sterility for a limited period. c. be structured to provide for aseptic delivery of the contents onto the sterile field. d. be compatible with the sterilization process. e. be used according to the manufacturer's written instructions.a. permit sterilization to take place. c. be structured to provide for aseptic delivery of the contents onto the sterile field. d. be compatible with the sterilization process. e. be used according to the manufacturer's written instructions. After completion of the steam sterilization cycle, wrapped, sterilized items should be: a. placed on metal table until cooled b. used immediately. c. left untouched to cool for 30- 60 minutes. d. left untouched to cool for 15- 30 minutes.c. left untouched to cool for 30- 60 minutes. Based on what you have learned about peracetic acid sterilization, identify the facts which are true regarding peracetic acid sterilization. SATA a. Is is a liquid chemical sterilization method. b. Is uses low temperature. c. Is it equal in efficacy to steam and ethylene oxide (EO) sterilization. d. It requires the use of a special unit designed for this type of sterilization. e. It can be used for all surgical items.a. Is is a liquid chemical sterilization method. b. Is uses low temperature. c. Is it equal in efficacy to steam and ethylene oxide (EO) sterilization. d. It requires the use of a special unit designed for this type of sterilization.
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Based on what you have learned about ethylene oxide sterilization, complete the following sentence. Complete sterilization in ethylene oxide is dependent upon four primary variables: proper time, humidity, temperature, and: a. proper packaging b. aeration c. gas concentration d. pressurec. gas concentration Match implant to surgery type. Implants
- teflon and dacron patches
- stapedectomy prostheses
- synthetic mesh
- ventriculoatrial shunts 5. scleral buckles/bands a. ENT b. general surgery c. neurosurgery d. ophthalmic surgery e. cardiac/vascular surgery1. e 2 ...................................... 1 3 ................................................................................................................................................................. 1 4 ................................................................................................................................................................. 1 5In which surgical wound category should a total abdominal hysterectomy be classified? a. clean Error! Bookmark not defined. b. clean contaminated c. contaminated d. dirtyb. clean contaminated Match term with definition. a. disinfection b. decontamination c. sterilization d. high-level disinfection
- The use of physical or chemical means to remove, inactivate, or destroy bloodborne or other pathogens on a surface or item.
- The process of destroying all microorganisms on a substance by exposure to physical and chemical agents; the complete elimination of all forms of microorganisms.
- A process that destroys all microorganisms (vegetative forms of bacteria, all fungi, all viruses) with the exception of high numbers of bacterial spores.
- A chemical or physical process of destroying all pathogenic microorganisms, except spores, on inanimate objects.a. 4 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3 Immediate use steam sterilization can be used: a. for implants b. in urgent situations c. under no circumstances d. for all itemsb. in urgent situations A packaging system for items undergoing sterilization should: a. be compatible with all sterilization processes.
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c. Provide optimal exposure. d. Maintain the patient's airway.b. Provide access to monitoring devices and IV lines. c. Provide optimal exposure. d. Maintain the patient's airway. Based on the knowledge you have gained about the supine position, identify the correct statements. a. The supine position is used only for breast surgery. b. The patient lies flat on his or her back with arms extended at a less than 90-degree angle on padded arm boards. c. Arm extension should be less than 45 degrees. d. There is an increase in the systolic pressure. e. There is a decrease in the diaphragmatic expansion. f. Use a heel-suspension device to redistribute heel pressure.b. The patient lies flat on his or her back with arms extended at a less than 90 - degree angle on padded arm boards. e. There is a decrease in the diaphragmatic expansion. f. Use a heel-suspension device to redistribute heel pressure. Identify the position that causes each complication. Complications: a. Venous pooling in the lower extremities and hypotension related to the position and the affect of anesthesia. b. Cyanosis and increased vascular load from the lower extremities to the heart and respiratory embarrassment due to decreased lung volume. c. Decrease in brainstem perfusion and decreased cardiac return. Position:
- Reverse trendenlenburg
- Trendelenburg
- Sitting/semi- sittinga. 3 b. 2 c. 1 Identify the statements that correctly describe the lithotomy position. a. Nerve damage can occur to the femoral nerve. b. Lithotomy position should never be used for perineal procedures. c. The patient's buttocks should extend over the break of the table to prevent strain on the sacrum. d. Dislocation of the hips can occur if the legs are not raised simultaneously. e. Injury can occur to the fingers if they are left too close to the break of the table.a. Nerve damage can occur to the femoral nerve. d. Dislocation of the hips can occur if the legs are not raised simultaneously. e. Injury can occur to the fingers if they are left too close to the break of the table. Identify the correct statements about the prone position. a. Face positioner is used to place head in neutral position. b. Padding is placed under the stomach. c. Ensure the breasts, abdomen, and genitals are free from torsion or pressure. d. The patient is positioned after the administration of anesthesia. e. Improper positioning can result in pressure on the superior vena cava.a. Face positioner is used to place head in neutral position. c. Ensure the breasts, abdomen, and genitals are free from torsion or pressure. d. The patient is positioned after the administration of anesthesia. Which position is used for most abdominal procedures and vascular surgery? a. supine
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b. prone c. lateral d. Kraske e. trendenlenburga. supine Match surgical position with physiological effect. Position: a. supine b. Trendelenburg c. Reverse trendelenburg d. Lithotomy e. sitting or semi-sitting f. prone g. lateral recumbent Effect:
- elevated BP
- pooling of blood in the dependent limb
- hypotension related to the position
- increase in cardiac output
- decreased cardiac return
- compression of the diaphragm
- potential femoral, obturator, and perineal nerve damagea. 4; b. 1; c. 5; d. 7; e. 3; f. 6; g. 2 Identify the statements that are true regarding integumentary and musculoskeletal system. a. Shearing accompanied by pressure, can result in a decubitus ulcer. b. Shearing can denude the epidermis. c. The prolonged exposure to skin prep solution chemicals under pressure can increase the likelihood of atopic dermatitis. d. Elderly patients at risk from shearing. e. Friction can also lead to the formation of pressure ulcers. f. Patients with arthritis are more prone to musculoskeletal stress.a. Shearing accompanied by pressure, can result in a decubitus ulcer. d. Elderly patients at risk from shearing. e. Friction can also lead to the formation of pressure ulcers. f. Patients with arthritis are more prone to musculoskeletal stress. To follow the AORN guidelines for positioning the patient, the perioperative nurse should: a. depend on the patient's natural defense mechanisms to indicate the need for positioning alterations. b. rely on the surgeon's and anesthesia professional's assessments to guide positioning. c. use a consistent method of procedure-specific positioning for each patient. d. use additional precautions as appropriate based on unique patient considerations.d. use additional precautions as appropriate based on unique patient considerations. Which of the following physiological effects is most likely to result from positioning a patient in the lithotomy position? a. Circulatory and respiratory compromise due to pressure on the abdomen. b. Circulatory pooling in the lower legs. c. Decreased brainstem perfusion. d. Pressure on the brachial nerves.a. Circulatory and respiratory compromise due to pressure on the abdomen.
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